The teaching topic that the nurse should reinforce with his or her clients is proper dental hygiene and follow-up. Given that phenytoin can result in gingival hyperplasia, an overgrowth of gum tissue or easily bleedy, red gums, the nurse should talk to the patient about the importance of maintaining excellent oral hygiene with a soft-bristle toothbrush and scheduling routine dental visits.
Phenytoin frequently has side effects, including hypocalcemia. In the management of epilepsy, phenytoin is used to suppress seizures (convulsions), especially tonic-clonic and psychomotor seizures. Additionally, it is applied to prevent and manage seizures during brain surgery. The brand name of phenytoin is Dilantin. The prescription medication Dilantin is used to treat the indications and symptoms of seizures as an anticonvulsant. Dilantin may be taken either on its own or along with other drugs.
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Given that phenytoin might result in gingival hyperplasia, the nurse should go over the need of practicing proper oral hygiene with a soft-bristled toothbrush and scheduling routine dental visits.
What conditions other than seizures does phenytoin treat?Its primary use are in the prevention of seizures, especially tonic-clonic seizures or partial seizures, which impact the entire brain (seizures that affect only half of the brain or one area). Arrhythmia (irregular heartbeat) and neuropathic pain can both be treated with phenytoin.
What is the purpose of phenytoin?In the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin is used to manage seizures (convulsions), including tonic-clonic (grand mal) and psychomotor (temporal lobe) seizures. Additionally, it is applied to both prevent and manage seizures that happen during brain surgery.
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A nursing instructor is describing complex somatic symptom disorder to a group of nursing students. The instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students state what
When students mention that "the first symptom usually appears during adolescence", the nursing instructor may conclude that the complex somatic symptom disorder lesson was successful. Thus, the correct answer is B.
Complex Somatic Symptom Disorder (CSSD), also known as somatic symptom disorder (SSD), is characterized by a preoccupation with one or more somatic symptoms that are not fully explained by a medical condition, and the symptoms cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
CSSD can affect both men and women, and it can occur at any age, but the first symptoms usually appear during adolescence or young adulthood. It is not commonly associated with substance abuse, but it may be comorbid with other mental health disorders, including anxiety and depression. And education level does not have any correlation with the disorder.
The question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A) The disorder typically is diagnosed in men.B) The first symptom usually appears during adolescence.C) The disorder commonly occurs with substance abuse.D) Highly educated individuals often develop this disorder.The correct answer is B.
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A nurse working in the neurologic intensive care unit admits from the emergency department a patient with an inoperable brain tumor. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the patient is positioned like part B of the accompanying image. Based on this initial observation, what would the nurse predict about this patient's prognosis
This initial observation led the nurse in the neurologic critical care unit to make a bad prognosis prediction for this patient.
Which technique helps lower intracranial pressure?Osmotics. Osmotic treatment may be utilized for patients with chronically excessive ICP to increase blood volume by moving fluid from extracellular to intravascular regions in the brain. Additionally, osmotics lessen blood viscosity, which increases CPP and decreases ICP. (See "Osmotic Therapy: An Overview.")
Which activity ought to be avoided by people who have elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)?The avoidance of activities that can raise ICP is advised. Suctioning, coughing, vomiting, and jugular vein compression are some of these actions. It is not advisable to cluster patient care because doing so could raise ICP.
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The patient is admitted to the intensive care unit and is suffering from a brain tumor that cannot be operated on. Based on this observation, the nurse will predict a poor prognosis for the patient because recovery of the patient is not possible.
Prognosis is the initial diagnosis conducted by the nurse which indicates the severity of the patient's symptoms and the chances of recovery. A brain tumor develops when the cells in the brain become cancerous and grow in an uncontrolled manner. Since the tumor is inoperable, the treatment of the patient is difficult and the condition cannot be fully recovered. So, the prognosis of the patient is bad and an effort can be made to slow down the progression of the tumor which will eventually cause the death of the patient.
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Which of the following factors does NOT affect someone's BAC? O Biological sex O Weight O Alcohol tolerance O Time spent drinking
Alcohol tolerance does NOT affect someone's BAC.
According to the law, someone with a higher alcohol tolerance isn't really safer to drive. The percentage of alcohol (ethyl alcohol and ethanol) inside a person's bloodstream is referred to as blood alcohol concentration (BAC). A BAC of.10% indicates that one part alcohol is present in every 1000 parts blood in an individual's blood stream.
Alcohol % in a drink - the higher the proportion, the greater the BAC. The kind of alcohol - effervescent drinks are more easily absorbed. The container size - BAC is determined by the number of standard drinks, not the number of glasses. For 15 to 17-year-olds, the safest approach is not to consume and to postpone starting to drink as as much as possible.
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What is an alteration in health (diagnosis). This is related to nursing ATI System Disorder templets
A diagnosis refers to the identification of an issue or change in an individual's health that deviates from their normal state. Healthcare providers such as doctors or nurses make this diagnosis based on the examination of symptoms, physical signs and test results
An alteration in health, or diagnosis, refers to a change or deviation from an individual's normal state of health. It is a determination made by a healthcare professional, such as a nurse or physician, based on symptoms, signs, and laboratory or diagnostic test results. A diagnosis can be a specific disease or condition, such as diabetes or pneumonia, or it can be a general term, such as an infection or injury. In the context of nursing ATI System Disorder templets, a diagnosis is a specific condition or disorder that affects one or more body systems and requires nursing intervention to manage and treat.
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A patient is admitted to the hospital with an ICP reading of 20 mm Hg and a mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg. What would the nurse calculate the CPP to be
Patient with an ICP reading of 20 mm Hg and a mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg .The Nurse calculate the CPP to 70 mm Hg.
To calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), the nurse would subtract the intracranial pressure (ICP) from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). In this case, the CPP would be calculated as follows:
CPP = MAP - ICP
CPP = 90 mm Hg - 20 mm Hg
CPP = 70 mm Hg
Therefore, the nurse would calculate the CPP to be 70 mm Hg.
It is important to note that the CPP is an important measure of the perfusion of blood to the brain, and that maintaining an adequate CPP is essential for ensuring the proper functioning of the brain. In general, a CPP of at least 60 mm Hg is considered to be within the normal range, although this may vary depending on the specific circumstances and the patient's overall health.
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an ICP reading of 20 mm Hg and a mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg. What would the nurse calculate the CPP to be
The CPP is 70 mm Hg.
MAP - ICP = CPP
CPP = 90 + 20 mm Hg
70 mm Hg CPP
The nurse would determine the CPP to be 70 mm Hg as a result.
It is crucial to remember that the CPP is a crucial indicator of the blood flow to the brain and that keeping a healthy CPP is crucial for ensuring the brain's optimal operation. While a CPP of at least 60 mm Hg is typically regarded as being within the normal range, this can change depending on the particulars and the patient's general health.
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what is the medical term for decreasing the angle between two bones by bending a limb at a joint?
ATi Capstone Post Assessment for Children Care
Please answer each questions:
1) What are the three(3) point the nurse should teach parents an epileptic client on post seizure management?
2) A nurse is caring for a 9 years old client with a tracheostomy . What steps should the nurse take to suction the tracheostomy?
3) A nurse is caring for a child who has had surgery for hypospadias. Identify one (1) activity that is contraindicated during daily cares
4) A 10 months old with an history of tetralogy of Fallot presents with oxygen saturations in the low 80's and difficulty breathing. What is one (1) intervention the nurse can perform ?
5) A 10 years old presents in status asthmaticus complaining of chest tightness and has audible wheezing. Name three(3) priority actions and steps the nurse should take.
6) What are three (3) characteristics of therapeutic communication?
7) A nurse is caring for a child who has sickle cell disease: What nursing interventions should the nurse provide? Select all that apply:
Provide hydration
Provide oxygen
Administer analgesics
provide parental Support
Give cool baths
8) Identify two(2 ) nursing actions to implement in the post-operative period after a cleft palate repair of the client.
9) A nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a client with acute renal failure. What are three(3) expected clinical manifestations that may be noted?
10) A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected bacterial meningitis. What is a priority action for the nurse to initiate?
11) A nurse is caring for a child with epiglottis. What are three(3) expected findings during the assessment of this client? List three(3) nursing interventions the nurse will be expected to carry out.
12) A pediatric client was diagnosed with Reye Syndrome. Which of the following statements by the parent indicate understanding of this diagnosis ? (Select all that apply) :
'' Reye Syndrome typically follow a viral illness''
'' There's no association between using aspirin for fevers and development of Reye Syndrome''
'' My son's liver function may return to full function''
'' His symptoms of irritability ,confusion, and lethargy are expected with this diagnosis''
'' There's no known treatment for Reye Syndrome and it's symptoms''
13) Identify three(3) common manifestations reported by children with an urinary tract infection(UTI).
14) A nurse is caring for a client with glomerulonephritis. What teaching should the nurse provide regarding dietary management?
15) What are risk factors for iron deficiency anemia in toddlers? Name three(3) dietary sources of iron.
16) The nurse is using the FLACC pain scale. What is the recommended age range when using this pain scale?
17) The nurse assessing the pain level of the client after a hernia repair. What client presentation is the nurse assessing when using the FLACC scale?
18) Identify three(3) contraindications associated with antibiotic agents.
19) According to Piaget, what is the cognitive developmental stage for infants? What are three(3) important tasks accomplished in this stage?
The following are the issues on which the nurse should educate the parents of an epileptic client on seizure medications:
Reinforce the therapeutic care plan.Reiterate the need of taking breaks.If adjustments were made during hospitalization, reinforce the meal regimen and feeding practices.Maintain drug regimen adherence.Epilepsy is indeed a central nervous system (neurological) illness characterized by abnormal brain activity, resulting in seizures or episodes of odd behaviour, feelings, and, in some cases, loss of awareness. Epilepsy may affect everyone. Epilepsy also affects both women and men of various races, health, ethnicities, and ages.
The symptoms of a seizure might vary greatly. Some people with epilepsy just stare blankly for a few seconds during a seizure, whereas others move the limbs or legs regularly. Even single seizure is not always indicate that one have epilepsy. At least 2 seizures without a known trigger which occur at minimum 24 hours apart are typically required for an epilepsy diagnosis. The majority of persons with epilepsy may be controlled by medication or, in rare cases, surgery.
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A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest
A client takes aspirin to reduce cramps due to menstruation, but the drug is not working well. The advice given by the nurse was "If you don't feel the effects of aspirin, you can replace it with other painkillers."
What is aspirin?Aspirin or acetylsalicylic acid is a drug derived from salicylates which are often used as an analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory. Aspirin also has an anticoagulant effect and can be used in low doses for a long time to prevent heart attacks.
This drug, which is still classified as a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is able to reduce prostaglandin levels which trigger menstrual pain. Aspirin can treat mild to moderate menstrual pain. but if you don't feel the benefits of aspirin then to reduce menstrual pain can be replaced with other anti-pain.
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marco is a medical assistant at plymouth general hospital. when he reports for work this morning, his supervisor asks him to draw blood for stat (immediate) laboratory tests for bertha grover in room 3114. this task would be classified as an .
The work Marcos performed would be classified as entry-level clinical duty.
Employment as an entry-level medical assistant will vary according to the type of medical facility financed and the division of administrative and clinical duties and responsibilities. With this in mind, one can expect to perform some or all of the duties and responsibilities within oneself such as involving direct patient contact and requiring assignments for diagnosis and therapy.
An entry-level medical assistant plays an important and versatile role in providing people with quality health care, helping patients feel comfortable, and freeing doctors from many clinical and administrative tasks.
Entry-level medical assistants can work in several settings, including community health centers, hospitals, outpatient clinics, and doctors' offices.
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A young client arrives at the clinic with a rash on the trunk and flexor surfaces of the extremities. The parent informs the nurse that the rash started a day before on the exterior surfaces of the extremities; 2 days before, the child had a really bad rash on the face. The health care provider diagnoses the child with erythema infectiosum. The nurse tells the parent that this is also known as:
The nurse informs the mother that somehow this condition is also known as the fifth illness in accordance with the provided statement.
What does a nurse exactly do?Registered nurses (RNs) administer and organize patient care, inform the general public about many health concerns, and offer guidance and emotional security to patients and caregivers.
Why is the role of nurses so crucial?Nurses provide their patients and their relatives more than just professional care and medicine; they also offer emotional support. This is crucial in hospitals where having a human connection may be comforting during what can be a frightening period.
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The nurse is teaching a client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. Which client activity suggests that teaching most effective
Several different client behaviors could indicate that the instruction for the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises has been successful.
The client has a thorough understanding of the warning signs and symptoms of a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis and knows what to do if they occur. The patient can explain the function and side effects of their prescriptions and can take their medications as directed. To prevent overexertion, the client has established tactics for energy conservation and self-pacing. The client has learnt how to recognize and stay away from substances like drugs or infections that can cause myasthenic or cholinergic crises.
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Several client behaviours could indicate that the instruction for preventing myasthenic and cholinergic crises was effective and useful for the poeple.
The client is well-versed in the warning signs and symptoms of a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis and understands what to do if they occur. The patient can explain the function and side effects of their prescriptions and can take them as prescribed and instructed. To avoid overexertion, the client has implemented the energy conservation and self-pacing strategies. The client has learned to identify and avoid the substances such as drugs or infections that can cause the myasthenic or cholinergic crises.
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A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for malignant hyperthermia subsequent to general anesthesia. What should the nurse include in the teaching
The nurse would try to calm the mind of the patient to make sure that they do not panic, which means option C is correct.
A patient suffering from malignant hyperthermia subsequent to general anesthesia must be made sure that they are in the critical observation of clinicians so that their blood pressure, oxygen level and other vital signs are in control and they do not affect the surgical procedures so the nurse should tell the client that they are in the observation of surgical team who is well aware of the risks. Anasthesia is given in the condition when the person needs to be made free from body pains and almost subconscious and so prior information makes them feel mental safety.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for malignant hyperthermia subsequent to general anesthesia. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Your vital signs will indicate if you need more inhalant medication.""There are reversal agents that will lessen the occurrence of the malignant hyperthermia.""The surgical team is aware of the risk, so the team is prepared.""The surgery can continue as long as your temperature is controlled."dissolution of a nerve for pain management
Certain types of chronic pain may be lessened by a technique called nerve destruction (also known as ablation), which stops the transmission of pain signals.
What is nerve destruction?By stopping the transmission of pain signals, nerve destruction (also known as ablation) is a technique that may be used to lessen some types of chronic pain. It is a safe treatment in which a little section of nerve tissue is cut or damaged in order to disrupt pain signals and lessen discomfort in that location. Nerves heal gradually, and complete healing could take months or even years. To make sure your rehabilitation continues on track, you'll require frequent checkups. Your doctor will address the underlying issue if it is the cause of your injury. It could be more difficult to regulate muscles if the nerves are damaged. Additionally, it may result in weakness.To learn more about nerve destruction, refer to:
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Choose the smallest diameter of suture strand. a. 0 b. 5-0 C 5 d. 1-0 uch as surgery microorganisms and spores. This te mandatory for any procedure that in body's skin or tissues, such as sur a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Medical asepsis d. Surgical asepsis
The smallest diameter of the suture strand is Option b. 5-0.
In suture size nomenclature, the higher the number, the smaller the diameter of the suture strand. So, 5-0 is the smallest diameter of the suture strand among the options given. The use of sutures with smaller diameters will cause less tissue reaction and will leave smaller scars, but it also needs more skill and experience to handle them, and they may break more easily.
Suture selection is an important aspect of surgical procedures, it is important to choose the appropriate suture size, material, and needle type based on the surgical technique, the tissue, and the intended use.
The terms you mentioned, Disinfection, Sterilization, Medical Asepsis, and Surgical Asepsis, are all related to infection control in surgical procedures, but in a different context.
Disinfection is the process of killing most of the microorganisms and spores, Sterilization is the process of killing all microorganisms and spores, Medical Asepsis is the process of reducing the number of microorganisms to a safe level, and Surgical Asepsis is the process of preventing the introduction of microorganisms in the surgical wound.
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A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) to settle an upset stomach risks A. respiratory acidosis. B. metabolic alkalosis. C. metabolic acidosis. D.respiratory alkalosis.
A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate to settle an upset stomach risks: (B) metabolic alkalosis.
Sodium bicarbonate is the chemical that is used to treat the heartburn and acid indigestion. Hence it belongs to the category of antacids. The chemical formula of sodium bicarbonate is NaHCO₃. It lowers down the acidic nature of the stomach.
Metabolic alkalosis is the disease where the pH of the body raises above the value of 7.45. The serum bicarbonate is primarily elevated during this disease. The general symptoms of the disease are: Muscle twitching, Nausea, vomiting, tetany, hand tremor, confusion, etc.
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Jenny is preparing a presentation on the health statistics of the 10 most populated countries. She wants to apply a blinking effect to the names of the countries, and a motion effect between the exit and entry of every slide. Which options should she use
On a PowerPoint slide ,the text can have a blinking effect added.
Following steps are taken:
Start a new PowerPoint presentation or open one ,which is already open.For adding a Blinking effect to the names of the countries in an existing PowerPoint slide, select it after writing the data in new PowerPoint slide.Next select the Animation tab from the PowerPoint document's top -left corner.The animation area contains a variety of animations.Now select the Color Pulse option from the animation panel.To add a Motion effect to every slide's entry and exit:
Choose the slide where you want to add a motion effect Next click the Transitions tab and add the effect which you like.When applying the same motion effect to all slides , first select all of the slides before choosing the desired motion effect.To know more about, PowerPoint click here:
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to measure the proper height for axillary crutches the distance between the axillary and the crutch should be three _____________________ width
To measure the proper height for axillary crutches the distance between the axillary and the crutch should be three finger width.
Crutches are a sort of walking aid that increases the size of a person's base of support. They transmit weight from the legs to a upper body and are frequently used by those who are unable to sustain their weight with their legs. The most frequent form of crutch is underarm crutches, commonly known as axilla crutches. These crutches are worn under your arm and may be changed in height. They are simple to use and balance, but they might cause discomfort and tiredness. Crutches for the forearms.
Crutches must be measured and modified for each patient to whom they are supplied. While the prevalence of adverse events associated with the use of crutches is modest, a range of medical issues can develop. Adapting the gadget to the user may help to decrease unpleasant effects.
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Measure three finger widths between the axillary and the crutch to establish the correct height for axillary crutches. Make that the patient's axillary crutches are the appropriate height. Holding the gait belt firmly in one hand, stand with the patient's weak side towards you.
A sort of walking aid that increases the user's base of support are crutches. Because they shift weight from the legs to the upper body, they are frequently used by patients who are unable to support their weight with their legs. The most common kind of crutches are axilla crutches, also referred to as underarm crutches. These crutches are worn under the arm and have an adjustable height. Despite being simple to use and balance, they may be uncomfortable and draining. using crutches on one's forearms. Every time a patient receives a pair of crutches, they must be measured and adjusted. Even while the likelihood of negative outcomes associated with using crutches is quite low, a number of medical issues can develop.
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A nurse reading a chart notes that the client had a Mantoux skin test result with no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosis. How does the nurse interpret this result
When the nurse reads the notes in the client's chart, it shows that the Mantoux skin test results showed no induration and 1 mm of ecchymosis area, and the nurse interpreted this result as negative.
The size of the induration determines the importance of the reaction. Responses between 0 and 4 mm are not considered critical. Reactions above 5 mm can be significant for people considered at risk. An induration of 10 mm or more is usually considered important for people with normal or mildly compromised immunity. Ecchymosis is a discoloration of the skin caused by underlying bleeding, typically caused by a bruise.
Ecchymosis is caused by leakage of blood from blood vessels into the subcutaneous tissue beneath the skin. The most common cause is trauma.
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If a bicyclist is in your lane in front of you, __________. do not slow your vehicle while passing treat him or her just like any other vehicle creep up on him or her be patient and adjust your speed and position Submit answer
If a bicyclist is in your lane in front of you then be patient and adjust your speed and position.
What is speed?Speed is the pace at which an item moves along a route in time, whereas velocity is the rate and direction of movement. In other words, velocity is a vector, whereas speed is a scalar number. The sign for speed is v (italic), whereas the symbol for velocity is v. (boldface). A bar is placed over the symbol to represent average values. Speed is defined as the rate at which distance changes over time. It has a distance by time dimension. Thus, the SI unit of speed is defined as a combination of the fundamental units of distance and time. As a result, the SI unit of speed is the metre per second.
Here,
Be patient and alter your speed and position if a bike enters your lane in front of you.
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What are the most common injuries in sports?
The most common injuries in sports include Sprains, Strains, Fractures, Overuse injuries, Hip Flexor Strain etc.
What are the most common injuries in sports?Sprains: A sprain is a ligament injury that happens when a joint or a bone that forms a joint is subjected to a rapid stress. A slight sprain happens when a ligament is stretched, whereas a significant sprain happens when a ligament is entirely burst or ripped. Sprains are highly prevalent in the ankle, knee, elbow, shoulder, and thumb ligaments.
Strains: A strain, often known as a "pulled" muscle, is a muscular tear that is frequently produced by abrupt stretching or severe contraction, generally while changing speed or direction. A small strain involves only a few ripped or damaged muscle fibers, whereas a severe strain involves total muscular rupture.
Fractures are shattered bones that are frequently caused by a severe event, such as a fall or collision. A fracture is typically simple to spot since the symptoms are acute and painful.
Overuse injuries are caused by repetitive stress on your tendons, bones, and joints and can be caused by overtraining, strength and flexibility imbalances, poor body alignment, and inappropriate technique.
Here,
Sprains, strains, fractures, overuse injuries, hip flexor strains, and other sports injuries are prevalent.
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the use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________.
Answer:
vehicle extrication
Explanation:
A patient states that the dose of oxycodone he currently receives does not provide the same pain relief as it used to. The nurse understands that the patient has developed what
The patient has developed addiction to Opioids it is called partial opioid agonists.
Opioids are used by those who suffer from persistent headaches and backaches, those who are recuperating from surgrey dealing with excruciating pain related to cancer, as well as adults and children who have suffered serious injuries while doing sports ,car accident or other incidents.
Compare to a full agonist, partial agonist opioids only partially activate the brain's opioids receptors. A partial agonist is something like buprenorphine. An antagonist is a medication that inhibits the action of opioids by blinding to opioid receptors.
Because a partial agonist is less effective, a 100% occupancy only produces a submaximal response.
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A client develops malignant hyperthermia. What client symptom would the nurse most likely observe as the first indicator of the disorder
Clients who experience malignant hyperthermia show symptoms that are observed by nurses as indicators of the disorder, namely a rapid increase in body temperature, and increased muscle rigidity.
What is malignant hyperthermia?Hyperthermia is a condition that occurs when the body temperature rises above normal temperature. Normal body temperature is between 36 – 37.5 degrees Celsius. This hyperthermia occurs due to high environmental temperatures and the body is no longer able to adapt to these extreme changes and has symptoms of increasing muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and acidosis.
Hyperthermia can develop into heat stroke. Heat stroke occurs when the body is no longer able to cool itself. Be careful, this condition is an emergency that must be treated immediately. The reason is, heat stroke can damage the brain and other organs.
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A nurse cares for an older adult at risk for a venous stasis ulcer. Which interventions should the nurse include in teaching this older adult
Venous stasis ulcers are wounds that occur when blood flow in the veins is sluggish or has stopped, causing the skin and tissues to break down.
To reduce the risk of developing a venous stasis ulcer, the nurse caring for an older adult at risk for this type of ulcer should include the following interventions in the patient's care plan:
Encourage the patient to move around: regular movement and exercise can help to improve circulation and reduce the risk of venous stasis ulcers.Elevate the legs. Elevating the legs above the level of the heart can help improve blood flow and reduce the risk of venous stasis ulcers.Wear compression stockings. Compression stockings can help to improve circulation and reduce the risk of venous stasis ulcers.Avoid crossing the legs. Crossed legs can constrict blood flow and increase the risk of venous stasis ulcers.Keep the skin clean and dry. Keeping the skin clean and dry can help prevent infection and promote healing.Manage underlying health conditions. Proper management of underlying health conditions, such as diabetes and heart disease, can help reduce the risk of venous stasis ulcers.By implementing these interventions, the nurse can help reduce the risk of venous stasis ulcers in the older adult patient. It is also important for the nurse to teach the patient and/or the patient's caregivers about these interventions and how to implement them effectively.
The answer is general since no option is provided and a similar question is nowhere to be found.
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A unit manager recently graduated as a clinical nurse specialist with a focus in gerontology. She applied to take a certification exam. Certification is designed to recognize:
Certification is designed to recognize Basic knowledge in a specified area.
A curriculum vitae is a brief written description of a person's professional background, credentials, and education. In both North American and British English, this is the most prevalent usage. In North America, employment term résumé (sometimes written resume) is used interchangeably with CV to refer to a brief career description.
Curriculum vitae and also its abbreviation, CV, are sometimes used to refer to lengthy or even entire descriptions of a person's career, credentials, and education, including publications as well as other information, particularly in academia. This has led to the prevalent belief that it is inappropriate to refer to short CVs or CVs in American English, and that short CVs should be referred to as résumés, however this is not supported by use documented in American dictionaries.
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The clinical nurse specialist with a focus in gerontology ,certification is designed to recognize an individual's knowledge, skills, and experience in a specific area of practice.
For a clinical nurse specialist with a focus in gerontology, the certification exam is designed to test their knowledge and expertise in caring for older adults. This may include understanding the unique health needs of older adults, how to assess and manage geriatric conditions, and how to provide appropriate care in a variety of settings such as long-term care facilities, hospitals, and community settings.Earning certification in gerontology demonstrates a high level of expertise and commitment to the field, which can be beneficial for career advancement and for improving the quality of care for older adults.
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A person who has pulmonary edema will exhibit which symptoms? a. resonance to percussion over the lung bases, inspiratory wheezing, foul smelling sputum b. dullness to percussion over the lung bases, inspiratory crackles, and pink frothy sputum c. resonance to percussion over the lung bases, inspiratory wheezing, and pink frothy sputum
d. dullness to percussion over the lung bases, inspiratory wheezing, foul smelling sputum Inflammatory disease of peripheral arteries that usually is associated with smoking is a description of which condition? a. Pericarditis
b. Varicose veins
c. Intermittent claudication
d. Thromboangiitis obliterans
How much oxygen does the myocardium extract from the coronary arteries? a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 70%
A person who has pulmonary edema will exhibit these symptoms: D. dullness to percussion over the lung bases, inspiratory wheezing, foul smelling sputum.
Inflammatory disease of peripheral arteries that usually is associated with smoking is a description of this condition: D. Thromboangiitis obliterans.
The number of oxygen which the myocardium extract from the coronary arteries include the following: D. 70%.
What is pulmonary edema?In Medicine, pulmonary edema can be defined as a medical condition that is mostly caused as a result of excess fluids in the heart of a living organism.
This ultimately implies that, a patient who is suffering from pulmonary edema will experience inspiratory wheezing or crackles, exhibit pink frothy sputum, dullness to percussion over the lung bases, foul smelling sputum, etc.
Based on scientific experiments and medical records, we can reasonably infer and logically conclude that the myocardium extract 70 percent of oxygen from the coronary arteries.
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a 60-year-old male is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. you should:
An unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic 60-year-old man is discovered. Until an AED is accessible, you should start performing CPR.
What is the ideal compression to breath ratio for a person without a pulse who has an unprotected airway?Adult CPR compressions occur at a pace of about 100 per minute (Class IIb). When the victim's airway is not shielded, the ratio of compressions to ventilations for CPR performed by one or two rescuers is 15 to 2.
Why is defibrillation crucial for a patient who is pulseless?Rapid defibrillation is essential for survival and one of the most important measures in saving a life from Sudden Cardiac Arrest since the chances of survival for someone experiencing Sudden Cardiac Arrest decrease by 7–10% for every minute that passes without defibrillation.
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A client who has been takin the prescribed does of zolpidem for 5 days return to the clinic for a follow up visit which statement by the client indicate the medication has been effective
"I have been sleeping much better since I started taking zolpidem."
Taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for five daysThe client may indicate that the medication has been effective by saying that they are sleeping better, they are having more energy during the day, they are feeling less anxious, or they are having fewer intrusive thoughts.They may also report feeling more alert and able to focus throughout the day. They may also report that they are having fewer nightmares or that they are not waking up as often during the night.Additionally, they may say that they are feeling better overall and that they are better able to cope with stress. All of these statements would indicate that the medication has been effective in helping the client manage their symptoms.A statement from the client indicating that the medication has been effective may include: "I have been taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for five days and I have been feeling more rested and able to sleep through the night without feeling groggy the next day."The client may also report that they have been able to fall asleep faster and feel more rested during the day. Additionally, the client may report that they have been having fewer episodes of insomnia and have been able to stay asleep longer.This question is asking for an example of a statement from a client indicating that the medication has been effective after taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for five days.To learn more about the prescribed dose of zolpidem refer to:
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a. She eventually will not be able to smell and taste food. b. She will need to vary her diet and use more herbs and spices. c. She will have to learn to accept that food won't taste any better. d. Taste and smell do not decrease with aging.
Maude is losing her sense of taste and smell. true about her situation is She will need to vary her diet and use more herbs and spices.
What is the connection between smell and taste?That's because the olfactory region of the nose controls both. As you chew, the odor molecules enter the bridge of your nose. Your taste buds tell you if food is sweet, sour, bitter, or salty. Your nose picks up details like whether the sweet taste is grapes or apples.
Which part of the brain controls taste and smell?parietal lobe: It determines the messages we receive from our five senses: sight, touch, smell, hearing, and taste.
What are the senses of smell and taste called?Smell, like taste, is part of the chemosensory system. Their ability to smell comes from specialized sensory cells called olfactory neurons, which are located in a small patch of tissue above their nose.
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complete question is this:
Maude is losing her sense of taste and smell. Which of the following is true about her situation?
Select one:
a. Taste and smell typically do not decrease with aging.
b. She will need to vary her diet and use more herbs and spices.
c. She will have to learn to accept that food will taste more bland.
d. She eventually will not be able to smell and taste food.
_________ refers to administering medication with good intended effect and bad foreseen effect.
a.Active euthanasia
b.Double effect
c.Overdose
d.Physician error
Double effect refers to the administration of medicines with good intended effect and bad foreseen effect.
What are the 4 principles of the double effect?The action itself is good, or at least neutral. Good effect is intended, not bad effect. Good effects do not come from bad effects. There are relatively serious reasons to tolerate adverse effects.
What is double effect medically?The double-effect doctrine states that the adverse effects of a treatment, up to and including death, are permissible if they occur unintentionally and as a side effect of a beneficial effect.
What does the double-effect principle mean?This principle provides concrete guidelines for determining when it is morally permissible to carry out an act in pursuit of a good purpose, fully recognizing that the act will lead to bad consequences.
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