a neonate is undergoing phototherapy for the treatment of jaundice and accompanying high levels of bilirubin. which causes are the likely factors responsible for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia? select all that apply.

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Answer 1

The causes are likely factors responsible for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia High bilirubin production and Limited ability to excrete bilirubin.

Common risk factors for hyperbilirubinemia are fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility prematurity and sibling involvement. The pathogenesis of neonatal jaundice involves physiological processes or pathological mechanisms of bilirubin accumulation.

Pathological jaundice can be acquired or inherited. Acquired neonatal jaundice includes Rh hemolytic disease ABO incompatibility disease, and hemolytic disease due to G6PD enzyme deficiency. Kernicterus is a form of brain damage caused by high levels of bilirubin in the baby's blood. It can cause athetoid cerebral palsy and hearing loss. Jaundice can also cause vision and dental problems and can lead to intellectual disability.

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Related Questions

A patient who is admitted to the hospital after a stroke suffers from the following symptoms: episodes of intense, unexplainable fear; difficulty speaking and reading aloud; and blindness in his right visual field

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A patient who is admitted to the hospital after a stroke suffers from the following symptoms: episodes of intense, unexplainable fear; difficulty speaking and reading aloud; and blindness in his right visual field, and the reasons that we use PET and MRI scan are given below.

A PET scan will show the dimensions, shape, and performance of the brain, thus your doctor will check that it's operating furthermore because it ought to. it's most frequently used once alternative tests, like MRI scan or CT scan, don't give enough data. This take a look at is used to: Diagnose cancer

MRI scan produces pictures of blood flow to bound areas of the brain. It is accustomed examine the brain's anatomy and confirm that elements of the brain area unit handling crucial functions. This helps determine necessary language and movement management areas within the brains of individuals being thought-about for surgical process.

The question is incomplete, find the complete question here

A patient who is admitted to the hospital after a stroke suffers from the following symptoms: episodes of intense, unexplainable fear; difficulty speaking and reading aloud; and blindness in his right visual field.

Part A : using the terms below explain why you use these scans to investigate patient's brain functioning.

PET scan and MRI scan.

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a 72-year-old man with a history of chronic tobacco use presents to clinic with a complaint of increasing dyspnea while walking to his mailbox. physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, and a barrel chest. a chest x-ray is obtained that demonstrates hyperinflation with flattened diaphragms. what is the most likely diagnosis?

Answers

Tuberculosis due to the mentioned symptoms

Child Psychology-

Which of the following values represents the strongest correlation between two variables?
A) +.25
B) +.50
C) -.50
D) -.75

Answers

The following values which represents the strongest correlation between two variables is A) +.25.

A variable is a thing which will be modified or altered, like a characteristic or price. Variables are usually employed in science experiments to see if changes to 1 issue lead to changes to a different. Variables play a crucial role within the psychological analysis method.

We can find correlation among variables by conniving a datum referred to as a parametric statistic. A parametric statistic could be a variety from negative one to positive one that indicates the strength and direction of the connection between variables.

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If digoxin has a half life of 35 hours, how long will it take for a toxic plasma concentration of 8 ng/ml to decline to a therapeutic plasma concentration of 2 ng.ml?

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Answer:

It will take seventy hours

While applying a tourniquet to stop life-threatening bleeding in a child, they start to cry and tell you that it hurts, before the bleeding is controlled. In addition to reassuring them, what should you do?.

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While applying a tourniquet to stop life-threatening bleeding in a child, they start to cry and tell you that it hurts, before the bleeding is controlled we should tell the victim that tourniquets hurt and the pain is normal for reassurance.

What is Torniquet?

This is referred to as a form of device or material which applies pressure to the extremities so as to prevent or stop the flow of blood resulting from injuries and other factors.

When it is used , there is usually pain as a result of the pressure applied which is why in this scenario it is normal for the child to cry as a result of the hurt experienced.

The person in charge has to reassure the child that the pain is normal and important as the flow of blood needs to be stopped so as to prevent complications arising from low blood volume.

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The options are:

Readjust the tourniquet to place it higher on the same.Tell the victim that tourniquets hurt and the pain is normal.Remove the tourniquet and apply direct pressure to the woundLoosen the tourniquet every 3 minutes to relieve the victim's pain.

an individual arrives in the emergency department in a coma with a possible drug overdose. which drugs would cause the pupils to be dilated and fixed? (select all that apply.)

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The drugs which would cause the pupils to be dilated and fixed include the following below:

A. Atropine

B. Scopolamine

D. Amphetamines

What is Drug?

This is referred to as a chemical substance which is used to treat or cure an illness or disease and there are different types with the unique structure and functions.

Drug overdose on the other hand is referred to as the taking too much of a drug and is as a result of lack of prescription and also the illegal use of these types of drugs.

Drugs such as amphetamines, scopolamine etc have some forms of psychoactive effect in the body system of an individual and it changes the size of the pupil and cause blurred vision which is therefore the reason why option A, B and D was chosen as the most appropriate choice.

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The options are:

A. Atropine

B. Scopolamine

C. Opiates

D. Amphetamines

Cholinergic agents are typically used in what disease state?

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Their primary use is in mild to moderate Alzheimer disease.

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A clinical trial was conducted to test the effectiveness of a drug used for treating insomnia in older subjects. After treatment with the​ drug, subjects had a mean wake time of min and a standard deviation of min. Assume that the sample values appear to be from a normally distributed population and construct a ​% confidence interval estimate of the standard deviation of the wake times for a population with the drug treatments. Does the result indicate whether the treatment is​ effective?.

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The mean wake time of 102.8 minutes before the treatment The 98% confidence interval of the mean wake time for a population with treatments is between 71.384 and 126.416 minutes.  This interval contains the mean wake time before treatment, and thus the treatment does not prove to be effective.

Non-benzodiazepine zopiclone, also marketed under the brand name Imo vane, is used to treat insomnia. The drug zopiclone is categorized as a cyclopyrrolone and differs chemically from benzodiazepine medications. Sedatives include zopiclone. The central nervous system is depressed or tranquilized as a result of it, which is how it functions.

The effects of zopiclone can get adapted to the body after repeated use. Withdrawal symptoms could appear once the medicine is abruptly stopped or the dose is reduced. These may include a variety of withdrawal symptoms from benzodiazepines.

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A clinical trial was conducted to test the effectiveness of the drug zopiclone for treating insomnia in older subjects. Before treatment with zopiclone, 16 subjects had a mean wake time of 102.8 minutes. After treatment with zopiclone, the 16 subjects had a mean wake time of 98.9 minutes and s standard deviation of 42.3 minutes. Assume that the 16 sample values appear to be from a normally distributed population and construct a 98% confidence interval estimate of the mean wake time for a population with zopiclone treatments. What does the result suggest about the mean wake time of 102.8 minutes before the treatment? Does zopiclone appear to be effective?

a client's initial blood pressure on admission to the outpatient clinic is 190/120 mm hg. which action by the clinic staff is most appropriate at this time?

Answers

Answer: Call an ambulance to take the client to the emergency department.

Explanation: Blood Pressure higher than 180 is a Hypertensive crisis and must be treated immediately.

Which of the following factors would be considered a nonmodifiable determinant of health?

Answers

The factors which would be considered as non-modifiable determinant of health are genetics, family, media and culture.

The determinants of health include: the social and economic surroundings, the physical surroundings, and. the person's individual characteristics and behaviours.

Risk factors are conditions that increase your risk of developing a unwellness. Risk factors are either modifiable, that means you'll be able to take measures to alter them, or non-modifiable, which implies they can not be modified. Example - age ethnic background case history of cardiovascular disease. The older you're, the a lot of possible you're to develop coronary cardiovascular disease or to own a internal organ event (angina, attack or stroke).

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Read this patient’s discharge diagnosis, as follows: Patient Name: Ms. Susan Cloud Date of Admission: 6/23/15 Date of Discharge: 6/28/15 Admission Diagnosis 1. Cataract extraction Discharge Diagnosis 1. Post-cataract extraction 2. Endophthalmitis Discharge Condition Stable Consultations Infectious disease According to this patient’s discharge diagnosis, she has endophthalmitis. What is the correct breakdown of this medical term?

Answers

The correct breakdown of the medical term endophthalmitis is: (1) end:- inside; (2) opthalm:- eye; and (3) itis:- inflammation.

Endophthalmitis is the inflammation of the fluids of the eyes, i.e. aqueous and vitreous. The inflammation happens due to infection of the bacteria (Staphylococcus species, Streptococcus species, Gram-negative bacteria) or fungi (Candida, Aspergillus).

Inflammation is the type of immune response generated due to invasion of some microorganisms. Various immune cells and blood cells accumulate at the site of inflammation. The symptoms of inflammation are: redness, swelling, itching, pain, etc. All these symptoms are indicative of the body's healing process.

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a client presents to an sti clinic. her primary complaint is related to purulent exudate and bleeding after intercourse. the health care worker will primarily focus on the diagnosis of which sti?

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The client presents to an STI clinic. her primary complaint is related to purulent exudate and bleeding after intercourse. the healthcare worker will primarily focus on the diagnosis of Gonorrhea.

What is the main complaint of a clinic patient?

The primary complaint of a clinic patient is earache (otalgia). As a result, the nurse's evaluation focuses on potential reasons for the client's suffering.

How does a sexual health clinic nurse evaluate a client?

A sexual health clinic nurse examines a female client and notices wart-like lesions on the vaginal area and rectum.

What causes an increase in purulent exudate?

The volume of the purulent discharge increases when the wound becomes infected. Purulent effluent is a thick yellow, gray, or green discharge that emerges from an incision when the infection spreads. Pathogenic microorganisms, white cells, inflammatory cells, and dead or dying bacteria are all present in the fluid.

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An industry special-interest group has hired an individual to meet with Congress members about matters affecting their industry. The special-interest group wants to influence legislation that affects the industry it represents. The individual they hired is best described as a(n)

A. Publicist
B. Investor
C. Activist
D. Marketer
E. Lobbyist

Answers

The individual hired to influence legislation that affects the industry it represents is referred to as Lobbyist and is denoted as option E.

Who is a Lobbyist?

This is referred to as an individual who specializes in the persuasion and in the influence of government and legislation so as to favor an individual or organization based ob different types of factors.

Lobbying is done and it involves the use of various methods such as writing of mails which contains the laid down interests between the two parties involved and is therefore the reason why option E was chosen as the correct choice.

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Anatomy is to physiology as:

a Swiss Army knife's parts are to all the things you can do with it.
brush strokes are to a whole painting.
an engine's design is to how much horsepower it has.
a square is to a circle.

Answers

Answer: a Swiss Army knife's parts are to all the things you can do with it.

Explanation: took the test

The correct analogy is: brush strokes are to a whole painting. Option B

What is anatomy?

Physiology is the study of how those structures operate together to preserve life, while anatomy is the study of the composition and arrangement of living things.

Similar to how the components of anatomy contribute to the overall functioning of a living thing, and physiology explains how those components interact, brush strokes in the supplied comparison are discrete components that contribute to the overall development of a painting.

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suddenly collapses after being stung by a bee. Which intervention is likely to be most effective?

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The only treatment is an injection of adrenaline.

as her menstrual flow begins, annika feels weak, nauseated, and has severe pain in the pelvic region, because of which she is unable to go to school. these symptoms occur at no other time. a likely diagnosis of annika's condition is

Answers

According to the given statement a likely diagnosis of annika's condition is primary dysmenorrhea.

What is the main cause of dysmenorrhea?

A biochemical imbalance inside the body causes dysfunctional uterine contractions in women with primary dysmenorrhea. For instance, prostaglandin, a molecule, regulates of the contractility. The most common medical issue that causes secondary dysmenorrhea is endometriosis.

How painful is dysmenorrhea?

In the lower abdomen, back, or thighs, you could have discomfort that ranges from mild to severe. Pain may linger for 12 to 72 hours on average, and you may also have additional symptoms including nausea and vomiting, exhaustion, or even diarrhea.

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in a small pilot study, 12 women with endometrial cancer (cancer of the uterus) and 12 women with no apparent disease were contacted and asked whether they had ever used estrogen. each woman with cancer was matched by age, race, weight, and parity to a woman without disease. what kind of study design is this?

Answers

According to the given statement This is study design kind of case-control study.

The correct option is  C.

What does estrogen do to a woman?

In addition to regulating the monthly cycle, estrogen also affects the urinary system, the heart's blood vessels, the bones, the breasts, the skin, the hair, the mucous, the pelvic muscles, and the brain.

What is estrogen's primary function?

The physiology, growth, and development of the human reproductive system are all controlled by estrogen. This hormone also affects the circulatory, skeletal, adipose, and neuroendocrine systems. An essential sex hormone called estrogen is predominantly made by male and female testes and ovaries.

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The complete question is -

In a small pilot study, 12 women with endometrial cancer and 12 women with no apparent disease were contacted and asked whether they had ever used estrogen. Each woman with cancer was matched by age, race, weight, and parity to a women without disease. What kind of study design is this?

a. prospective cohort study,

b. retrospective cohort study

c. case-control study

d. cross-sectional

e. experimental study

the healthcare provider orders xylocaine (lidocaine) 2g in 500ml d5w iv to infuse at 2 mg/min. what is the infusion rate in ml/ hr? (record answer as a whole number. do not use a trailing zero.)

Answers

The healthcare provider orders xylocaine (lidocaine) 2g in 500ml d5w iv to infuse at 2 mg/min. The infusion rate is 42 mL per hour.

How do you calculate IV fluid drops per minute?

Add the infusion rate (mL/hour), then the time (1 hour over 60 minutes). Remove the labels. Drops (gets) multiplied by the infusion rate divided by 60 are what you're left with. Rearrange the equation by dividing the drops (gtt) by 60 and multiplying by the infusion rate.

42 mL per hour is the result of rounding the ratio of the total volume (500 mL) to the total duration in hours (12), which equals 41.6. Rounding 42 drops per minute, 41.6 results from the total amount divided by time (in minutes) and the drop factor of 60 gtts/min.

Therefore, the xylocaine is given in 42 mL per hour through iv.

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caused by bacteria in medical terms

Answers

Answer:

Diseases caused by Bacteria

1. Tetanus Causative agent: Clostridium tetani ...

2. Tuberculosis Causative agent: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. ...

3. Pneumonia Causative agent: Klebsiella pneumoniae ...

4. Cholera Causative agent: Vibrio cholerae. ...

5. Dysentery Causative agent: genus Shigella ...

6. Pseudomonas Infection Causative agent: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. ...

7. Gonorrhea Causative agent: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. ...

8. Syphilis Causative agent: Treponema pallidum. ...

More items

A cook wore single-use gloves while forming raw ground beef into patties. The cook continued to wear them while slicing hamburger buns. What mistake was made?.

Answers

When the gloves are filthy or broken, food handlers who spend their entire shift shaping hamburger patties should change them.

What circumstances make single-use gloves optional?

By putting a barrier between hands and food, single-use gloves can assist maintain the safety of food. When handling food that is ready to consume, they should be utilized. The exclusions include handling components for a dish that will be cooked to the appropriate internal temperature or washing produce.

Before beginning work and thereafter, food handlers are required to wash their hands:

use the lavatory.

Managing raw poultry, fish, and meat (before and after)

contacting the body, face, or hair.

Using a tissue, coughing, or sneezing.

eating, drinking, smoking, or using tobacco or chewing gum.

handling substances that might have an impact

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a client is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis. which clinical manifestations correlate with this diagnosis? select all that apply.

Answers

A client with lung disease may face increased respiratory rate and decreased tidal volume.

A person who suffers from a restrictive lung illness typically breathes in a tachypneic pattern, in which the respiratory rate picks up and the tidal volume drops. In addition to clubbing of the fingers and toes, a nonproductive cough may also appear, especially with extended exposure to the irritating substance breathed. There is a reduction in lung volumes, including essential capacity.

While maintaining minute volume, this breathing pattern also lessens the effort required to breathe since it requires less effort to move air through the airways quickly than it does to expand a stiff lung to accommodate a higher tidal volume.

Therefore, all of these manifestations are correlated with diagnosis of lung disease caused by fibrosis in a client.

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What is the purpose of setting up traffic cones and reflective devices around an accident?
To direct traffic away from the accident
To draw drivers' attention to the accident
To establish the danger zone
To pass the time while waiting for ALS backup
Read Question

Answers

The first one. Drive traffic away from incident.

an older adult reports waking up in the morning with pain/stiffness in the neck/shoulders. laboratory work reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (esr). following a short trial of prednisone with significant improvement, the health care provider likely will diagnose which disorder?

Answers

Prednisone with significant improvement,the health care provider likely will diagnose which  disorder is iImmunologically mediated joint inflammation

What distinguishes rheumatoid arthritis from PMR?

RA typically affects the little joints in the hands and feet, although it can also happen in the knees, wrists, and ankles. PMR never affects the feet; instead, it usually affects the neck, shoulders, and hips.

Reactive arthritis can affect both men and women, however it is more common in men to have it as a result of a STI. If a gastrointestinal infection is the cause of the ailment, both men and women are equally afflicted. Age

It mostly affects adults between the ages of 20 and 40.

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the nursing instructor is teaching a class about cancer and informs the students that the difference between benign and malignant neoplasms include which distinguishing characteristics? select all that apply.

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The nursing instructor is teaching a class about cancer and informs the students that the difference between benign and malignant neoplasms include which distinguishing characteristics is Malignant neoplasms tend to grow slowly.

What is cancer?

Cancer refers to  a wide range of diseases characterized by the development of abnormal cells that divide uncontrollably and have the ability to invade and destroy normal body tissue. Cancer can often  spread throughout the body.

Cancer is the second leading cause of death in the world. However, survival rates for many cancers are improving due to improvements in cancer screening, treatment and prevention.

Cancer is caused by changes (mutations) in the DNA of cells. The DNA inside a cell is packaged into a large number of individual genes, each of which contains  instructions that tell the cell what functions to perform and how to grow and divide.

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A researcher wants to find out if rats are better at completing a maze more quickly when their trainers are told that they are “maze-bright” rats vs. those who are told that they are “maze-dull” rats. Whether the trainer is told the rat is “maze-bright” or “maze-dull” is which type of variable?

Answers

A researcher wants to find out if rats are better at completing a maze more quickly when their trainers are told that they are “maze-bright” rats vs. those who are told that they are “maze-dull” rats and whether the trainer is told the rat is “maze-bright” or “maze-dull” is an explanatory and response type of variable.

A variable are some things that may be modified or altered, like a characteristic or worth. Variables are usually utilized in science experiments to see if changes to at least one factor lead to changes to a different. Variables play a important role within the psychological analysis method.

An explanatory variable is what you manipulate or observe changes in (e.g., alkaloid dose), whereas a response variable is what changes as a result (e.g., reaction times). The words “explanatory variable” and “response variable” are usually interchangeable with alternative terms utilized in analysis

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Medicare and social security are mandatory spending categories funded by which type of taxes that are withheld from your paycheck?.

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Medicare and social security are mandatory spending categories funded by taxes under the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) that are withheld from your paycheck .

The hospital insurance tax, often known as Medicare taxes, and the old-age, survivors, and disability insurance tax are the two types of taxes covered by the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA). These taxes have various rates. FICA taxes total 15.3% between employee and employer contributions.

Employees contribute 6.2% of Social Security and 1.45% of Medicare from their gross income. Employers are required to match both, thus their share of the taxes is 7.65%. It should be noted that while Medicare does not have a wage-based contribution ceiling, Social Security does.

Therefore, medicare and social security are mandatory spending categories funded by taxes under the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) that are withheld from your paycheck .

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What is the maximum amount of daily caffeine intake that does not have a negative effect on fluid balance?.

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The maximum amount of caffeine intake that does not have a negative effect on fluid balance is about 400 mg per day.

Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine output. This can lead to dehydration if not enough fluid is consumed. Caffeine also has a stimulating effect on the nervous system, which can lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure. This amount of caffeine is safe for most people and does not cause dehydration. Caffeine is a stimulant that affects the central nervous system. Consuming more than 400 mg of caffeine can cause restlessness, anxiety, and heart palpitations. Caffeine can also cause headaches, nausea, and dizziness.

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bill visits his doctor, who advises him that his smoking has placed him at increased risk for coronary heart disease. which effect is least likely to contribute to his risk of coronary heart disease as a result of smoking?

Answers

The LEAST likely effect to contribute to Bill's risk of coronary heart disease as a result of smoking is the elevation of high-density lipoprotein (Option A).

What is coronary heart disease?

Coronary heart disease refers to all diseases associated with the heart caused when the blood vessels in this organ are too narrow that it hampers the normal flow of blood, thereby representing a risk for life.  

Coronary heart disease is associated with both genetic factors and environmental factors which include smoking and a sedentary lifestyle.

The relationship between coronary heart disease as a result of smoking is that accelerates heart rate and promotes plaque formation.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that coronary heart disease is associated with environmental factors including smoking.

Complete question:

Bill visits his doctor, who advises him that his smoking has placed him at increased risk for coronary heart disease. Which effect is LEAST likely to contribute to his risk of coronary heart disease as a result of smoking?

A)elevation of high-density lipoprotein

B)carbon monoxide displacing oxygen

C)acceleration of heart rate

D)promotion of plaque formation

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aviva experiences heavy and painful periods. her doctor finds, through an ultrasound, an abnormal growth of tissue outside the uterus. in this case, aviva is most likely to be suffering from

Answers

If Aviva's doctor finds, through an ultrasound, an abnormal growth of tissue outside the uterus, then Aviva is most likely to be suffering from a tumor.

What is a tumor?

A tumor is a mass of cancerous cells that divide in an uncontrolled manner, which is due to the lack of a suitable cellular mechanisms that stop the growth in specific stages of the cell cycle such as the S stop point before DNA replication.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that tumors generate a mass of cells that may constraint adjacent organs and cause pain.

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a development team wants to gain full observability into the health of their applications and instances in order to provide the best service level to users of their applications. which services can help them monitor the health of their applications and instances?

Answers

The services can help them monitor the health of their applications and instances are

Simple Notification Service (SNS)Route 53Elastic Load BalancingElastic BeanstalkCloudTrail

What is health?

Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being. It's not just about the absence of disease.  A person is said to be healthy when he is free from any  disease (infection/deficiency), when he is mentally happy and healthy, and when his social relationships in society are healthy. . Therefore, to live a healthy life, a person must be physically, mentally and socially perfect.

Health is called a combination of  six components that help maintain the well-being  of  body and mind.

The six factors are

physical emotional socialenvironmental mental spiritual  health

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