According to the given statement The nurse should record 300mL of IV fluids on the intake record at 0600.
What is the role of a nurse?The primary duty of a nurse is to care for patients by responding to their physical needs, preventing illness, and treating medical conditions. In order to enhance therapeutic decision-making, nurses must monitor and follow the patient and record any relevant information. A woman who already has undergone specialized training in treating the injured and unwell is a physician. Nurses work together with physicians and other health care providers to treat patients & keep them healthy and active.
Briefing:2.5 hours are involved in this time frame.
120 + 120 + 60 = 300mL infused
OR
120mL/hr x 2.5hr = 300mL
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1. Two disease processes associated with chronic glomerulonephritis are: a. ALS and lupus b. diabetes and hypertension
c. lupus and diabetes d. ALS and diabetes
The two medical conditions that are associated with glomerulonephritis are diabetes and hypertension.
Glomerulonephritis is a damage to the tiny filters or glomeruli inside the kidneys.It is often caused by the immune system attacking healthy body tissues and it usually doesn't cause any noticeable symptoms.Long term poorly managed high blood pressure can cause scarring and inflammation of the glomeruli and also glomerulonephritis inhibits the kidney,s role in regulating blood pressure.Hence, hypertension is associated with Glomerulonephritis.Diabetes means high sugar levels in blood which contributes to scarring of the glomeruli and increase the rate of flow of blood through the nephrons.Hence, Diabetes also associated Hypertension with Glomerulonephritis.To learn more about Diabetes
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A 62-year-old patient with shingles is seen in the office. The physician would classify this disease as
The physician would classify this disease as a latent infection.
A latent infection is one caused by an organism that is dormant (inactive) inside the body. Active infections occur when an organism was actively multiplying and possibly generating symptoms, whereas latent infections remain static and usually do not cause symptoms. When an infection remains dormant, it might avoid detection by the immune response and just be difficult to cure with medications and other therapy.
Various organisms can infiltrate the body and produce a latent infection. Although certain forms of latent infections are much more frequent than others, those organisms involved throughout all types are normally dormant and do not create symptoms.
Infections produced by viruses, that are creatures that contain genetic material including such deoxyribonucleic acid, are known as viral latent infections (DNA).
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The doctor sees a 62-year-old patient who has shingles. This illness would be categorized by the doctor as a latent infection. Latent infection generally refers to an infectious agent remaining in the body without manifesting any symptoms.
A latent infection could be brought on by an organism that is dormant (inactive) inside the body. In contrast to latent infections, which are static and frequently do not produce symptoms, active infections occur when an organism is actively reproducing and has the ability to do so. When an illness is latent, the immune system could not recognize it, making it challenging to treat with medicine and other treatments. Latent infections may be brought on by several types of microorganisms that infiltrate the body. Although some types of latent infections are more frequent than others, all of them involve germs that are frequently inactive and have no symptoms.
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A patient is admitted to the hospital with pulmonary arterial hypertension. What assessment finding by the nurse is a significant finding for this patient
The nurse is a significant finding for this patient is Dyspnea.
The major symptom of PH is dyspnea, which occurs first with effort and afterwards during rest. Substernal chest discomfort is another typical symptom. Other indications and symptoms include weakness, exhaustion, syncope, hemoptysis on occasion, and indicators of right-sided heart failure. Anorexia and right upper quadrant stomach discomfort are also possible.
Patients with imminent respiratory failure generally experience shortness of breath and changes in mental state, which can manifest as anxiety, tachypnea, or reduced Spo2 despite increasing quantities of supplementary oxygen. Tachycardia and tachypnea can occur as a result of acute respiratory failure.
Findings related to the respiratory system, including such tachypnea & increased breathing effort, will be included in the physical examination. Systemic symptoms, such as central or peripheral cyanosis caused by hypoxemia, tachycardia, or altered mental state, may also be present depending on the severity of the illness.
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For a patient with pulmonary arterial hypertension, a number of assessment findings may be important, including: Dyspnea (breathlessness).
This is a typical sign of pulmonary arterial hypertension and can occur at rest or during physical activity. Rapid breathing, or tachypnea, is a symptom of pulmonary arterial hypertension and occurs when the heart is working harder than usual. Chest discomfort - Because of the increased pressure in the heart and lungs caused by pulmonary arterial hypertension, chest pain can occur. Fatigue - Due to the stress on their hearts, patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension may experience fatigue and a loss of energy. Peripheral edoema, or leg and ankle swelling, can develop as a result of fluid building up in the lower extremities as a result of elevated heart and lung pressure. These and other symptoms should be constantly monitored by the nurse in a patient with pulmonary arterial hypertension.
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the correct beginning position for the patient’s feet and crutches is called the ____________ position
Answer:
tripod
Explanation:
with the patient's feet parallel and the crutches 15 centimeters (or 6 inches) to the sides and 15 centimeters (or 6 inches) in front of the patient's feet
A patient who is on medications that block the RAAS is feeling faint during exercising. While being monitored on a treadmill, the doctor sees that his blood pressure remains low instead of increasing with his level of activity. She explains that his medication is:
His prescription prevents RAAS vasoconstriction, preventing an increase in blood pressure during exercise.
The RAAS will be activated by which of the following?Usually, the RAAS is triggered in response to a dip in blood pressure (lower blood volume) in order to boost the kidney's reabsorption of water and electrolytes, which makes up for the drop in blood volume and raises blood pressure.
What would be the impact of high blood pressure medication on GFR?Elevated BP is connected paradoxically to a slower drop in GFR in people taking antihypertensive medication. Studies with even longer follow-up times are required to assess the long-term impact of blood pressure on renal function.
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A young client is being seen by a pediatric ophthalmologist due to a recent skateboarding accident that resulted in trauma to the right cornea, and is now at risk of developing an infection. Which nursing intervention would be contraindicated for a client at risk for infection
When performing nursing procedures that need invasive lines or non-intact skin, wash your face and practice aseptic technique. For those who are at risk fo infection, restrict visitation or place them in protective isolation.
Which of these would be a wet macular degeneration client's advanced stage finding?Grid by Ambler. When viewing an Amsler grid, someone with severe macular degeneration may notice warped grid lines or even a blank area close to the grid's center (right). Your eye doctor does a thorough eye exam while reviewing your medical and familial history.
What sort of trauma damages the optic nerve?Indirect damage to the visual cortex, which is assumed to be the consequence of transferred shock out of an orbital hit, is the most frequent cause of TON.
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The nurse is triaging surgical clients. Which client would the nurse document as in need of urgent surgical care
An urgent surgical operation is thought to be necessary for an acute gallbladder infection. Surgery for cataracts and cosmetic reasons is not an urgent surgical procedure.
Which matter should the nurse bring up with a patient who is having an open cholecystectomy preoperatively?In order to prevent postoperative atelectasis in patients undergoing abdominal surgery, deep breathing and coughing must be taught, demonstrated, and again demonstrated prior to surgery.
When preparing a client for surgery, which nurse action has the highest priority?Patient and family education is the primary nursing intervention throughout the preoperative phase. Utilize every chance while the patient is being evaluated and getting ready for surgery to provide them with information that will help them feel more comfortable and less anxious.
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When the nurse is triaging the surgical clients then she will document the person suffering from an acute gallbladder infection as an urgent need of surgical care. An urgent surgical operation is thought to be necessary for an acute gallbladder infection.
Surgery for cataracts and cosmetic reasons is not an urgent surgical procedure. An urgent surgical operation can be necessary if there is significant bleeding. Urgent surgeries are procedures carried out for urgent, potentially fatal medical problems, such as severe accident injuries, or acute appendicitis.
Complete Question: The nurse is triaging the surgical patients. Which patient would the nurse document as urgent for surgical care? A person in need of cataract surgery. A person getting cosmetic surgery. A patient with significant bleeding. A patient with an acute gallbladder infection.
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Define the following: a. Cardiorespiratory endurance b. Muscular strength c. Muscular endurance d. Flexibility e. Body composition What are two examples of good stress in your life
The definitions of "cardiorespiratory endurance" to "body composition" are:
a. Cardiorespiratory endurance: The ability of the body's circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen to the muscles during physical activity for an extended period of time. b. Muscular strength: The ability of a muscle or muscle group to exert force against resistance. c. Muscular endurance: The ability of a muscle or muscle group to repeat a movement or hold a position for an extended period of time without fatigue. d. Flexibility: The ability to move a joint through its full range of motion.e. Body composition: The relative amounts of muscle, bone, fat, and other vital tissues in the body.Two examples of good stress in life are:
An exam or test that we have studied for and are confident in our abilities.The excitement and stress of planning for an upcoming vacation or event that we are looking forward to.Learn more about cope with stress here: brainly.com/question/11819849
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Following a splenectomy, a client has a hemoglobin (Hb) level of 7.5 g/dL, and a blood pressure lying in bed of 110/70 mm Hg. The nurse suspects abnormal orthostatic changes when the client gets out of bed and reports vertigo. What vital sign value most supports the client's orthostatic changes
The most dangerous side effect of DVT is pulmonary embolism, which develops when a piece of the clot fragments off and enters the bloodstream and blocks the lungs.
What deep venous thrombosis-related consequence is the nurse aware of?If a clot moves and causes a pulmonary embolism, which moves to the heart and lungs, it can become life-threatening. DVT symptoms might include discomfort, edema, and warm-to-the-touch skin. It can also be undiagnosed up to a pulmonary embolism, though.
Which observations would support a diagnosis of diminished cardiac output?Which observations would support a nursing interventions of diminished cardiac output Tachycardia, tachypnea, and urine output 30 are clinical signs of reduced cardiac output.
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Which statement is true concerning CDR and EHR?
A. CDR supports management of data for EHR
B. CDR and EHR are the same
C. CDR is an early stage of EHR
D. CDR captures documents; EHR captures data
A. CDR supports management of data for EHR
Any environment for coordinating care delivery, from a hospital to the national and regional shared contexts, depends around the electronic health record (EHR). Clinical data repository (CDR), along with other parts and services, provides health record storage, confidentiality, and access.
A variety of clinical data sets representing various clinical organizations can be managed using EHR. Store's Clinical Data Repository (CDR), which complies with Open EHR standards. Matrix of cross-functional links enables the development of interpersonal connections, which increases the significance both the information and the access to it.
The foundation of the EHR Network is the person-centric EHR repository known as EHR. Store. It controls the clinical information on individuals throughout the rest of the time.
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if more than one responder is available and trained in cpr, when should the responders switch? select 3 answers. select all that apply.
If more than one responder is available and trained in CPR then begin the next cycle of compressions & breaths immediately after the two breaths.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is indeed a lifesaving method that may be used in a variety of situations where someone's breathing and heartbeat has stopped, such as a heart attack or near drowning. CPR should be started with forceful and quick chest compressions, according to the American Heart Association. This suggestion for hands-only CPR applies to both unskilled onlookers and first responders.
CPR may keep oxygen-rich blood flowing to a brain and other tissues until emergency medical help arrives to restore a normal cardiac rhythm. When the heart stops beating, the body is deprived of oxygen-rich blood. In just a few minutes, a shortage of oxygen-rich blood may induce brain damage.
Cardiac arrest in infants is mainly caused by a shortage of oxygen, such as choking. Perform choking first aid if you know the infant has an airway obstruction. If you have no idea why the infant isn't breathing, do CPR.
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When there are multiple responders who are skilled in CPR, compressions and breaths is the next stage. The rescuers alternate positions every two minutes or five CPR cycles.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), a life-saving emergency procedure, uses chest compressions and artificial ventilation to protect brain function while other steps are performed to restore breathing and blood circulation to a cardiac arrest sufferer. It is advised for people who are unresponsive and not breathing, as well as those who are breathing abnormally, such as when they are experiencing agonal respirations. Adults who require CPR must perform chest compressions that are at least 100 to 120 times per minute and between 5 cm (2.0 in) and 6 cm (2.4 in) deep. The rescuer can also perform mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, which includes exhaling into the victim's mouth or nose, or a device that pumps air into the victim's lungs (mechanical ventilation).
The complete question is:
If more than one responder is available and trained in CPR, when should the responders switch? select 3 answers. select all that apply.
a) When the original responder is tiring
b) About every 2 minutes
c) After every five cycles of CPR
d) None
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The cumulative dose of an antineoplastic agent is defined as the: a dose of a drug given over a course of treatment.
b recommended dose of a drug at a single point in time.
c total dose of a drug resulting from repeated exposure.
d dose of a drug given over a defined period of time.
The "total dose of a drug resulting from repeated exposure" is the definition of the cumulative dose of an antineoplastic agent. Hence, the correct answer is C.
The cumulative dose of an antineoplastic agent is the total dose of a drug resulting from repeated exposure. This means that it is the sum of all the doses of the drug that a person has received over a certain period of time, whether it is a single course of treatment or multiple courses. The cumulative dose is important to consider when determining the appropriate dose of a drug and the risk of potential side effects. It is also used to monitor the effectiveness of a treatment and adjust the dose if necessary.
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A nurse caring for a client who has an infected wound removes a dressing saturated with blood and purulent drainage. How should the nurse dispose of the dressing material
The nurse should option B: Dispose of the dressing in a biohazardous waste container.
The swabs and dressings disposal container, also known as a biohazardous container for disposal, has been specifically created for the secure disposal of both clinical and hazardous swabs and dressings. They may be left in place in clean wounds for up to 7 days, or until the gel becomes less viscous. Alginate dressings for infected wounds should be changed every day. Alginate dressings are used on wounds with significant drainage because they are incredibly absorbent.
Treatment is necessary if you have purulent discharge or other infection-related symptoms in order to prevent it from getting worse. Your doctor might need to apply fresh dressings and clean the wound. If the infection is minor, they might rinse the area with an antibiotic solution.
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Complete question is:
A nurse caring for a client who has an infected wound removes a dressing saturated with blood and purulent drainage. How should the nurse dispose of the dressing material?
A. Discard the dressing in the bedside trash receptacle.
B. Dispose of the dressing in a biohazardous waste container.
C. Enclose the dressing in a single clear plastic bag and discard in the bedside trash receptacle.
D. Double-bag the dressing in clear bags and label it "biohazard".
The medication profile of John Doe: Cardizem CD 120 mg PO qd, Coumadin 5 mg PO qd, Synthroid 0.088 mg PO qd John Doe presents new prescriptions for: Percodan i to ii OI q4-6h prn severe pain. Zocor 20 mg PO qd. What possible drug interaction exists
Percodan and Coumadin are the drug interactions that are possible to exists.
Aspirin and oxycodone are both present in Percodan. Aspirin is a member of the salicylates class of medications. It functions by lowering the levels of chemicals in the body that lead to inflammation, fever and discomfort.
An opioid painkiller is oxycodone. When a adolescent develops a flu - like symptoms aspirin should not be administered to them.
Coumadin is also known as blood thinner. This medicine is used to treat existing blood clots in the body and to stop the formation of the new ones, such as those caused by deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Keeping hazardous blood clots at bay lower the chance of suffering a heart attack.
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Percodan and Coumadin are the drug interactions that are possible to exists.
What is Aspirin?Aspirin and oxycodone are both present in Percodan. Aspirin is a member of the salicylates class of medications. It functions by lowering the levels of chemicals in the body that lead to inflammation, fever and discomfort. An opioid painkiller is oxycodone. When a adolescent develops a flu - like symptoms aspirin should not be administered to them. Coumadin is also known as blood thinner. This medicine is used to treat existing blood clots in the body and to stop the formation of the new ones, such as those caused by deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Keeping hazardous blood clots at bay lower the chance of suffering a heart attack.
Here,
Percodan and Coumadin are two drugs that can interact with one other.
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The student nurse is discussing the plan of care for a child admitted to the hospital for treatment of an infection. Which action should be taken first
The first step to be taken by nurse towards a child suffering from infection should be to obtain the blood cultures to determine the cause of infection, which means option D is the right answer.
During the treatment of the child, the first step is to determine which microbe is responsible for the infections in the body so that suitable medication can be framed to destroy the disease causing agent. The administration of antibiotics before blood tests may impact the culture's results. A urine specimen can also be collected and tested but is not the priority action. In the plan of care, other steps can be to diagnose the vital signs regularly, diet and nutrition and vaccination if needed.
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The student nurse is discussing the plan of care for a child admitted to the hospital for treatment of an infection. Which action should be taken first?
a) Initiate intravenous therapy
b) Obtain urine specimen for analysis
c) Initiate antibiotic therapy
d) Obtain blood cultures
The nurse is determining the type of alternative toileting needed for a patient. Which criteria indicate the need for use of a bedpan
Criteria indicating the need to use a bedpan as alternative toileting required by patients are postoperative patients who are unable to use regular toilets and elderly patients who are sick.
What is the function of the bedpan?bedpan is a container that is given a handle and is usually placed under the bed in the room and is used for urinating by people who are sick or the elderly as an alternative toilet. Bedpan is usually used by people who have criteria such as post-surgery, childbirth, post-accident, childbirth, or the elderly because they are unable to walk to a regular toilet.
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the nurse prepares to administer morning medications to assigned clients. which prescription should the nurse clarify with the health care provider
The prescription which the nurse should clarify with healthcare provider is Losartan for client suffering from hypertension in 8 week pregnancy, which means option B is correct.
Pregnancy is the condition when the zygote has started to develop in the uterus of the women. In 8 week pregnancy, the women tends to feel tiredness or anxiety due to hormonal imbalance. Hypertension is the condition when blood pressure is consistently high in the body. Due to hypertension, their can be specific complications in pregnancy. It can cause low blood flow to the placenta and deprive it of essential nutrients from the mother. Losartan is used to treat high blood flow condition.
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The nurse prepares to administer morning medications to assigned clients. Which prescription should the nurse CLARIFY with the health care provider?
1. Clopidogrel for client with history of stroke and platelet count of 154,000/mm
2. Losartan for client with hypertension who is 8 weeks pregnant.
3. Prednisone for client with herpes simplex lesions and bells palsy.
4. Tiotropium for client with pneumonia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
he nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which actions should the nurse take
The immediate steps which can be taken by nurse in case of patient suffering from seizure activity are loosening the clothes, increasing the side rails, removing the pillow and positioning the client to the side, which means option 1,3 and 4 are correct.
Seizures, epilepsy or fits are the sudden drastic disturbances in the brain due to which body undergoes uncontrolled vibrations. Whenever there is interruption in neural connections, the fits can occur. Changing the position of the patient is important to ensure that he is able to breathe properly. Raising the pillow will also causes ease in ventilation. Seizure protection is important because the person is not in mental control and this may injure them unintentionally.
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The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
1.Loosening restrictive clothing
2.Restraining the client's limbs
3.Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails
4.Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward
5.Keeping the curtain around the client and the room door open so when help arrives they can quickly enter to assist
A group of nursing students is reviewing information about antisocial personality disorder. The students demonstrate understanding of this disorder when they state what
The students demonstrate understanding of this disorder when they state option B: The individual must be at least 18 years of age.
ASPD characteristics typically start to emerge in late childhood or the early teen years. The syndrome is classified as conduct disorder before the age of 18. Children that have behavior disorders may steal, break the law, or bully other kids. Sometimes conduct disorder symptoms go unnoticed by parents or medical professionals. The symptoms could be confused with those of other disorders such oppositional defiant disorder, depression, or attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Thus, option B is the correct choice.
A mental health illness is known as antisocial personality disorder (ASPD). People with ASPD might not know how to act around others. They frequently act in a contemptuous, cunning, or reckless manner. Psychotherapy or medication may be used to treat ASPD.
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Complete question is:
A group of nursing students is reviewing information about antisocial personality disorder. The students demonstrate understanding of this disorder when they state what?
A. The disorder occurs more frequently in women
B. The individual must be at least 18 years of age.
C. The disorder is found primarily in Asian individuals
D. Alcohol abuse disorder rarely accompanies this disorder.
for a hot or cold therapy to be effective, the pack should be applied for how long to the injured area?
Answer:
Typically the pack should be applied for about 20 minutes, then reapplied every two hours or so. Continue for a few days.
An ophthalmologist diagnoses a patient with myopia. The nurse explains that this type of impaired vision is a refractive error characterized by:
The type of impaired vision in myopia is a refractive error characterized by Blurred distance vision.
Myopia is the condition of near sightedness which means that the person is able to see things clearly which lie close to them but not those which are far apart. In this condition, doctor (ophthalmologists) advices the patient to use spectacles with concave lens with suitable focal length. These patients have deeper eye ball, due to which the image of the object which must be focused on retina falls before the retina (in front of it). Myopia worsens with age and lack of proper medications and nutrition. Laser operation is a method of permanent cure to myopia.
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the dosage of stimulant medication prescribed by a doctor starts out ______ and ______ gradually.
PAL: Histology > Connective Tissue > Lab Practical > Question 17 17 of 20 > Part A VO 08 ve Identify the highlighted zone of the epiphyseal plate.
Proliferative zone is the epiphyseal plate region that is emphasised in the provided diagram. A hyaline cartilage, the epiphyseal plate is also referred to as the growth plate.
What is Proliferative zone?The reserve zone is the epiphysis' uppermost layer. Chondrocytes constantly go through mitosis in the proliferative zone, the second zone.
The zone of maturation and hypertrophy, which comes after, is where lipids, glycogen, and alkaline phosphatase build up and the cartilaginous matrix calcifies.
The area of the epiphyseal plate that is highlighted in the provided diagram is the proliferative zone. The epiphyseal plate, a hyaline cartilage, is also known as the growth plate.
Thus, the highlighted zone is Proliferative zone.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing image is:
A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question
When A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence , the nurse will question Clonidine [Catapres].
Clonidine tablets (Catapres) are used alone or in combination with other medicines to treat hypertension. Lowering high blood pressure helps prevent stroke, heart attack, and kidney problems.Clonidine belongs to a class of drugs that work in the brain to lower blood pressure (central alpha agonists).
Clonidine belongs to a class of drugs called antihypertensives. It works in the brain and modifies some of the nerve impulses. This relaxes blood vessels, allowing blood to flow more easily and lowering blood pressure. Clonidine is thought to induce analgesia at alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the spinal cord, thereby confining pain relief to areas of the body innervated by spinal cord segments.
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Chlamydia differ from most other bacteria in that they O produce endospores. O lack a cell wall. O have a developmental cycle. O are acid-fast.
Chlamydia differs from most other bacteria in that they which is option c. have a developmental cycle.
Chlamydia is a type of bacteria that is unique in its biology and behavior. Unlike most other bacteria, Chlamydia has a developmental cycle that includes both a bacterial form and a non-bacterial form. The bacterial form is called the reticulate body (RB) and it is responsible for replication and growth. The non-bacterial form is called the elementary body (EB) and it is responsible for infecting host cells. This developmental cycle allows Chlamydia to evade the host's immune system and survive within host cells. They do have a cell wall but it is made of a unique structure called peptidoglycan. They do not produce endospores or are acid-fast.
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How would an x-ray technician position the camera to produce a frontal view of a patient's abdominal cavity
The X-ray technician would position the camera option A: In front of the patient, pointing at his navel.
Abdominal X-ray refers to an X-ray of the abdominal cavity. It operates on the same concept as an X-ray and employs ionizing radiation to provide images of the organs inside the abdominal cavity, including the intestine, stomach, liver, and spleen. It is used to identify patients who have nausea, vomiting, and inexplicable pain. A frontal view of the abdominal cavity is produced by the x-ray technician while diagnosing the patient's abdominal cavity by positioning the camera in front of the patient and looking at his navel. Thus, option A is the appropriate choice.
An x-ray machine is a portable device that can be brought to a patient in a hospital bed or the emergency department. An x-ray film holder (picture recording) plate is positioned beneath the flexible arm that the x-ray tube connects to.
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Complete question is:
How would an x-ray technician position the camera to produce a frontal view of a patient's abdominal cavity
A. In front of the patient, pointing at his navel
B. In front of the patient, pointing at his breastbone
C. To the side of the patient, pointing at his armpit
D. To the side of the patient pointing at his hip bone
A person with an inapparent infection:
O Can transmit the infection to others
O Is a danger to family members but not to others in the community
O Never develop antibodies
O Is of no epidemiologic importance
A person with an inapparent infection: (a) are able transmit the infection to others.
A person with inapparent infection is the one who is the carrier of the infection but does not himself suffer from the disease. The microbes in side the body of the individual usually exist in a latent or dormant stage and therefore no symptoms are usually observed.
Infection is the appearance of the harmful microorganisms into the living body and multiply their population. This results in damage to the host body, which is termed as infection. The microorganisms capable causing infection are: bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoans, etc.
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The clinical guidelines for management of incontinence developed by the Registered Nurses Association of Ontario (RNAO):
The clinical guidelines for management of incontinence developed by the Registered Nurses Association of Ontario (RNAO): Articulate practice recommendations developed from synthesis and review of evidence.
RNAO is the association that represents the registered nurses, nurse practitioners as well as the nursing students of Ontario. The purpose of RNAO is to advocate healthy public policy, promote excellent nursing practice and power the influence of nurses in the profession.
Nurses are the part of the healthcare profession who take care of the patients of all ages. They work under the doctors and assist them in their work. A nurse takes care of the patient at physical level as well as at mental level.
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The Registered Nurses Association of Ontario (RNAO) has created clear practice recommendations based on the synthesis and evaluation of the available research in its clinical guidelines for the management of incontinence.
The RNAO is the organization that speaks for Ontario's registered nurses, nurse practitioners, and nursing students. The RNAO's mission is to support good public policy, encourage great nursing practice, and increase the strength of nurses' influence in the industry.
The group of healthcare professionals that care for patients of all ages are nurses. They support the doctors in their work and work under their supervision. Both the patient's physical and mental needs are attended to by the nurse.
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A nurse is obtaining a client's health history and discovers that the client takes loratadine, an over the counter drug. The nurse should identify that which of the following is correct regarding over the counter drugs? Select all that apply.
1. They do not require the supervision of a nurse
2. They can interact with other drugs
3. They should be included in the client's drug history assessment.
4. They are less effective than prescription drugs.
5. They do not cause toxicity.
The correct statements about over-the-counter drugs are that they do not require the supervision of a nurse, they can interact with other drugs and they should be included in the client's drug history assessment. So the correct options are 1, 2 and 3.
What are over the counter drugs?Over-the-counter drugs are those drugs that are sold without a prescription, consumers can use it on their own initiative. They are usually not so strong drugs that will alleviate minor conditions and usually these drugs have a wide range of conditions that they can treat.
The characteristics that they have are that they have more benefits than risks, they have a low potential to be misused, customers can easily identify the conditions they have in order to use them, among others.
Therefore, we can confirm that the correct options are 1, 2 and 3.
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Which of the following is true of electronic health records?
A. Usually supported by all healthcare providers.
B. Can be accessed by multiple end users simultaneously.
C. Have a clear definition and technological standards.
D. Permit minimal risks to healthcare privacy and security.
The correct answer is option for electronic health records is :
B. Can be accessed by multiple end users simultaneously.
A digital version of a patient's paper chart is an electronic health record (EHR). EHRs are real-time, patient-centered records that make information available to authorized users instantly and securely. While an EHR does contain patients' medical and treatment histories, an EHR system is designed to go beyond standard clinical data collected in a provider's office and can include a more comprehensive view of a patient's care.
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