Arthur is organising his collection
of DVDs. He has 72 altogether.
The ratio of comedy films to
action to horror is 6 : 7:5

Answer:

$67.75

Step-by-step explanation:

12% off means that 88% of $76.99 is the final price.

76.99×0.88= 67.7512

Answer:

$67.75

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate 88% (which is 100% - 12%(the discount)) you need to multiply it by 67.75 and divide by 100

Answer:

angle 7 is 115°

Step-by-step explanation:

angle 1 is Alternative Exterior Angles, that means they are exactly the same.

Answer:

1 : 45

Step-by-step explanation:

225 divided by 5 equals 45. You can now use this ratio to determine the number of people with different amounts of buses; when you change x from 1 to n, you would need to multiply 45 by n, and you will have your new ratio column in the table.

Hope this helps :)

The equation which models the relationship expressed in slope intercept form ls y = 45x

Expressing the equation in the form :

Slope, b = (900 - 225) / (20 - 5) = 45

Using any (x, y) points on the table given to find the value of c :

225 = 45(5) + c

225 = 225 + c

c = 0

Hence, the equation which models the relationship is y = 45x

Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/18405415

Answer:

n=60

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract 75 from 135

Final Answer: [tex]n =60[/tex]

Steps/Reasons/Explanation:

Question: Solve the equation [tex]n + 75 = 135[/tex].

Step 1: Subtract [tex]75[/tex] from both sides.

[tex]n = 135 - 75[/tex]

Step 2: Simplify [tex]135 - 75[/tex] to [tex]60[/tex].

[tex]n = 60[/tex]

~I hope I helped you :)~

Answer:&.&/

Step-by-step explanation:82

Answer:

(2 * 5/8 * 5/6) + 1 1/8 = 13/

6

= 2 1/

6

≅ 2.1666667

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiple: 2 * 5/ 8  = 2 · 5/ 1 · 8 = 10/ 8 = 5 · 2/ 4 · 2 = 5/ 4

Multiply both numerators and denominators. Result fraction keep to lowest possible denominator GCD(10, 8) = 2. In the next intermediate step , cancel by a common factor of 2 gives 5/ 4 .

In words - two multiplied by five eighths = five quarters.

Multiple: the result of step No. 1 * 5/

6 = 5/ 4 * 5/ 6 = 5 · 5/ 4 · 6 = 25/ 24

Multiply both numerators and denominators. Result fraction keep to lowest possible denominator GCD(25, 24) = 1. In the next intermediate step the fraction result cannot be further simplified by canceling.

In words - five quarters multiplied by five sixths = twenty-five twenty-fourths.

Conversion a mixed number 1 1/ 8

to a improper fraction: 1 1/8 = 1 1/ 8 = 1 · 8 + 1/ 8  = 8 + 1/ 8  = 9/ 8

To find new numerator:

a) Multiply the whole number 1 by the denominator 8. Whole number 1 equally 1 * 8/ 8  = 8/ 8  

b) Add the answer from previous step 8 to the numerator 1. New numerator is 8 + 1 = 9

c) Write a previous answer (new numerator 9) over the denominator 8.

One and one eighth is nine eighths

Add: the result of step No. 2 + 9/

8 = 25/ 24  + 9/ 8  = 25/ 24  + 9 · 3/ 8 · 3  = 25/ 24 + 27/ 24  = 25 + 27/ 24  = 52/ 24 = 4 · 13/ 4 · 6  = 13/ 6

For adding, subtracting, and comparing fractions, it is suitable to adjust both fractions to a common (equal, identical) denominator. The common denominator you can calculate as the least common multiple of the both denominators - LCM(24, 8) = 24. In practice, it is enough to find the common denominator (not necessarily the lowest) by multiplying the denominators: 24 × 8 = 192. In the next intermediate step , cancel by a common factor of 4 gives 13/ 6.

In words - twenty-five twenty-fourths plus nine eighths = thirteen sixths.

The expression (2 x 5/8 x 5/6) + 1 1/8 evaluates to 49/24.

To calculate the given expression, we'll follow the order of operations, which states that multiplication and division should be performed before addition.

Let's break down the expression step by step:

Multiply: 2 x 5/8 x 5/6

First, multiply the numerators together: 2 x 5 x 5 = 50.

Then, multiply the denominators together: 8 x 6 = 48.

The expression becomes 50/48.

Add: 50/48 + 1 1/8

To add fractions, we need to find a common denominator. In this case, the common denominator is 8.

Converting the whole number 1 to a fraction with a denominator of 8, we get 8/8.

The expression becomes (50/48) + (8/8).

Next, we add the fractions:

50/48 + 8/8 = (50 + 48)/48 = 98/48.

The fraction 98/48 can be simplified by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 2:

98/48 = (49 x 2)/(24 x 2) = 49/24.

So, the final answer is 49/24.

The expression (2 x 5/8 x 5/6) + 1 1/8 evaluates to 49/24.

To learn more about the PEMDAS;

https://brainly.com/question/36185

#SPJ6

Answer:

6, 4.854, 7.054, I think

Step-by-step explanation:

I used trig functions to solve for them

1st I found the central angle and divided it by 10 to create myself a right triangle in the middle with an altitude.

I then found the 3rd angle using the triangle angle sum theorem and then used trigometic functions to solve for X

(6)Cos(36)= Apothem

(6)Sin(36)= Sidelength/2

Answer:

6x^2 + 6x + 6x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

You're cross multiplying the numbers on the left with the numbers on the right. Here is the order you multiply them in to eliminate the brackets, aka simplify the equation.

Step 1: (this ....) x ( this ....)

Step 2: (this ....) x (.... this)

Step 3: (.... this) x (this ....)

Step 4: (.... this) x (.... this)

REMEMBER!! When you multiply numbers with x's in them, make sure that you're multiplying the X's together too. For example, 2x times 3x is 6x^2 NOT 6x. Why? x times x is x^2 (aka x squared)

Answer:

4.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4.4

Step-by-step explanation:

-7/10 + 0.15 = -0.7 + 0.15 = -0.55

-0.55 ÷ -0.125 = 4.4

Answer:

3.4

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pythagoras is the sum of the square of two sides is equal to the square of the longest side. Then the length of the rectangular cross-section is 5 inches.

A triangular prism is a closed solid that has two parallel triangle bases connected by a rectangle surface.

A grocer has a block of cheese that has a length of 12 inches, a width of 4 inches, and a height of 3 inches.

Then he slices the cheese into two equal triangular prisms.

Let L be the length of the rectangular cross-section.

The length of the rectangular cross-section will be given by the Pythagoras theorem.

L² = 3² + 4²

L² = 9 + 16

L² = 25

L = √25

L = 5

More about the triangular prism link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/2654102

Answer:

62.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 285

Step-by-step explanation:

Jared = 194

Matthew=(194)(3)=582

Gary=582-297=285

Fewer means Substraction

Gary will sell 285 chocolate bars

Answer:

Factor using the perfect square rule.

( 5 x  +  2 ) ^2

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps! Have a nice day!

Hi! Your answer to this problem would be 624.

Step by Step Explanation: Subtract 422 with 76, add 135, subtract 45, add 110, and lastly add 58.

Subtract 422 with 76, 422-76=366.

Add 366 with 135, answer will be 501.

Subtract 501 with 45 since she paid $45. 501-45=456.

Add 456 with 110 and that would be 566.

For the last step add 58 to find the answer and you would get 624.

Final Result: 624.

Hi there!

Slope: -7/3

y-intercept: (0,2)

x y

_______

0 2

6/7 0

Hope I helped

~SharkieOwO~

Answer:

13

Step-by-step explanation:

200% = 2

2x =26

x = 13

Mark as brainlist

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x^{3} =8\\x=\sqrt[3]{8} \\x=2[/tex]

use your calculator

Answer:

5x + 16

Step-by-step explanation:

combine like terms (x) 12 + -7 = 5

so 5x + 16

leave the 16 because there is not like term to combine it with and you don't have a y to finish solving the equation

final answer: 5x + 16

hope this helps

Answer: 5x + 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: $350.00

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$350

Step-by-step explanation:

if the sale is 30% we have to find what is 30% of 500 so we can subtracted from what we pay .

line up what you know:

$500 represents  100%

    $x represents  30 %

cross multiply

x*100 = 500* 30 ; divide both sides by 100

x= 500*30 /100 = 150

the sale price is 500-150= $350

Answer:

1212928316

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

512

Step-by-step explanation:

So the expression here is simply 8³.

And you have to write is out like this:

8×8×8

Solve the equation from left to right:

8×8=64

Continue:

64×8=512

Therefore, 8³ equals 512.

Answer:

a) The general manager should expect 50 customers until there is a winner.

b - i) 0.0483 = 4.83% probability that none of the customers won.

b - ii) 0.1478 = 14.78% probability that exactly one customer won.

b - iii) 0.8039 = 80.39% probability that at least two customers won.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each customer, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they win the prize, or they do not. The probability of a customer winning the prize is independent of other customers. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

2% probability of winning free pizza

This means that [tex]p = 0.02[/tex]

(a) How many customer should the general manager expect until there is a winner?

The expected number of trials until there is n sucesses, with p probability, is given by:

[tex]E = \frac{n}{p}[/tex]

In this question, 1 winner(success). So

[tex]E = \frac{n}{p} = \frac{1}{0.02} = 50[/tex]

The general manager should expect 50 customers until there is a winner.

(b) If there were 150 customers on a day of the promotion

This means that [tex]n = 150[/tex]

(i) none of the customers won?

This is [tex]P(X = 0)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{150,0}.(0.02)^{0}.(0.98)^{150} = 0.0483[/tex]

0.0483 = 4.83% probability that none of the customers won.

ii) That exactly one customer won?

This is [tex]P(X = 1)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{150,1}.(0.02)^{1}.(0.98)^{149} = 0.1478[/tex]

0.1478 = 14.78% probability that exactly one customer won.

iii) That at least two customers won?

This is [tex]P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)[/tex], in which:

[tex]P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0483 + 0.1478 = 0.1961[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.1961 = 0.8039[/tex]

0.8039 = 80.39% probability that at least two customers won.

Answer:

2.77

Step-by-step explanation:

yes

Answer: 2.77000016 quarts