Generally thought of as the movement and use of hands and upper extremities, fine motor skills include reaching, grasping and manipulating objects with your hands. Fine motor skills also involve vision, specifically visual motor skills, often referred to hand-eye coordination.
Newborn to 2 months: Can lift and turn their head when lying on their back. Hands are fisted, the arms are flexed. Neck is unable to support the head when the infant is pulled to a sitting position.
4-8 Months: Babies at this age are gaining muscle strength and may achieve a series of physical milestones, including head control and sitting up, which is later followed by creeping or crawling. They explore objects with their mouth and by kicking, reaching, grasping, pulling, and letting go.
8-14 months: Reach, grab, and put objects in their mouth.
Pinch small objects (e.g. cheerios) with thumb and pointer finger.
Move objects from one hand to the other.
Drop and pick up toys.
Bang two objects together.
Let go of objects on purpose.
following administration of intravenous antibiotics for an infection, the 70-kg client (bmi 26) developed frequent and infectious diarrhea. the client has had the diarrhea for more than one week. the client is becoming malnourished and dehydrated. what is an appropriate nursing action?
The goal of treatment is to keep a sufficient fluid and electrolyte balance. For the accurate diagnosis of malnutrition in this population as well as the creation of complete treatment regimens, careful nutritional assessment is required.
How does acute gastroenteritis come about?Acute gastroenteritis is a condition that develops when a person consumes food or water that has been tainted with pathogenic microorganisms (such as Clostridium perfringens, Vibrio cholera, or E. coli) or their toxins. Its signs include stomach pain, diarrhea, vomiting, and nausea.
The goal of treatment for acute diarrhea and dehydration is to keep an adequate fluid and electrolyte balance. Oral rehydration therapy, which uses oral rehydration solutions (ORS) to improve salt and water absorption, is the first line of treatment. Even if vomiting also occurs along with diarrhea, ORS should still be given often in tiny doses. It is advised to keep up the child's regular diet of solid foods because doing so reduces the length and intensity of diarrhea. The BRAT diet, which consists of bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast, is not advised because it does not provide enough protein or energy.
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which of the following activities are considered to be part of the core competencies for public health professionals? (select all that apply.) group of answer choices obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community implementing nursing care and subsequent evaluation outcomes maintaining public health departments throughout the united states defining variables relevant to current public health problems
The two option are correct A and B. Defining variables relevant to current public health problems and Obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community.
What does it mean to be a public health professional?People who work in public health ensure the conditions necessary for people to be healthy through scientific research and health education. To stop the spread of disease, this could entail immunizing both children and adults.
What do public health professionals focus on?The study of protecting and enhancing the health of individuals and their communities is referred to as public health. In order to accomplish this effort, healthy lifestyles are promoted, disease & injury prevention research is conducted, and infectious disease diagnosis, prevention, or response are studied.
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The complete question is -
Which of the following activities are considered to be part of the core competencies for public health professionals? (Select all that apply.)
a. Defining variables relevant to current public health problems
b. Obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community
c. Implementing nursing care and subsequent evaluation outcomes
d. Maintaining public health departments throughout the United States
due to an influenza epidemic in smithtown, the hospital is almost at full-capacity. the best information system that would be used to efficiently manage resources such as personnel, beds, appointments of surgeries and ct scans, to coordinate equipment and staff as needed would be:
The best information system that would be used to efficiently manage resources such as personnel, beds, appointments of surgeries and CT scans, to coordinate equipment and staff as needed would be Scheduling.
What is CT scan?
A CT scan is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses a combination of X-rays and computer technology to produce images of the inside of the body. It shows detailed images of any part of the body, including bones, muscles, fat, organs and blood vessels. A CT scan is more detailed than a standard X-ray.
Although rare, the contrast agent can cause medical problems or allergic reactions. Most reactions are mild and cause a rash or itching. In rare cases, an allergic reaction can be serious, even life-threatening.
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a child has just been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle). which assessment finding would be considered the most accurate prognostic indicator of the extent/seriousness of the disease?
The below finding would be considered the most accurate prognostic indicator of the extent/seriousness of the disease SLE is Rust/blood-coloured urine.
What is disease ?A disease is a specific abnormal condition that adversely affects the structure or function of the whole organism or part of it and is not directly caused by external damage. Diseases are often illnesses with certain signs and symptoms. Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites. Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They are usually harmless or even beneficial. However, under certain conditions, some organisms can cause disease. Some infectious diseases can be transmitted from one person to another
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a client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine. the nurse determines that the client understands important information about this medication if the client makes what statement?
Diphenoxylate - This is " An addictive component is present in this drug.”
What is diphenoxylate?
Diphenoxylate reduces gastrointestinal motility, which lessens diarrhea. Diphenoxylate exhibits chemical similarities with a number of opioids and has the potential to become addictive if used at dosages that are higher than those advised by a doctor. If the combination is administered at larger than usual doses, atropine will cause unpleasant side effects.
Diphenoxylate, an opioid of the phenylpiperidine family with central activity, is used in combination with atropine to treat diarrhea. When used with atropine, the opioid diphenoxylate slows intestinal contractions and prevents drug misuse and overdose.
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a client suffered a laceration in his workshop and lost a significant amount of blood. the clots that formed have begun to retract. the process of clot dissolution has begun, which starts with:
A client suffered a laceration in his workshop and lost a significant amount of blood, the clots that formed have begun to retract. the process of clot dissolution has begun, which starts with plasminogen activation.
What is the wound healing procedure depicted in this situation?Primary intention healing is the wound-healing process outlined in this case.Secondary intention healingTertiary intention healing.Approximation healing.What happens when there are no more available clotting components?
"There is so much clotting that there are no accessible clotting components remaining, and bleeding ensues." Nursing students are studying the regular stages of hemostasis, particularly the first stage, which involves vasoconstriction of the blood artery.
What effect do antihypertensives have on skin integrity and wound healing?Skin integrity and wound healing are reduced in blood pressure medication patients because of antihypertensives:
Can be harmful to cells. Increase the risk of ischemia.Postpone wound healing. Increase the risk of hematoma formation.Learn more about hemostasis here:-
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the daily value (dv) for saturated fat on the nutrition facts panel is 20 grams per day. which item on the day 1 menu provides more than 100% dv of saturated fat per serving?
A good strategy to cut back on saturated fats is to replace whole milk with low-fat (1%) or nonfat (skim) milk.
Saturated fats are what?
They are a particular class of fat distinguished by their chemical make-up and molecular connections. These qualities make this fat relatively unsuitable for eating. All diets should limit the consumption of these fats to 10% of the total calorie intake at the most. A diet devoid of these fats is in no way hazardous. Bad cholesterol is produced by this kind of fat, which can result in numerous health problems.
Since the required daily maximum for saturated fats is 20 grams, we can thus establish that based on a 2,000 calorie diet, the daily value for saturated fats provided by the Day 1 meal would be 100%.
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Answer:
Explanation:
Beef, Ground, Patty, 23% fat, Raw(8 ounces)
Maximum fat content for lean ground beef is 17%; maximum fat content for medium ground beef is 23%; and maximum fat content for regular ground beef is 30%. Various cattle cuts are processed into ground beef. Lean cuts like sirloin and round steak are used to make extra lean and lean ground beef.3 ounces of frozen beef ground patties have 240 calories. Raw Hamburger with about 23% Fat, 0g Carbs, 19.7g Fat, and 15g Protein.According to the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, less than 10% of your daily caloric intake should come from saturated fats. For a 2,000 calorie diet, that amounts to around 200 calories.
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what implications will the doctor of nursing practice have on the regulation of aprns? what questions should aprns seeking the dnp have with regard to their practice setting?
APRNs write prescriptions for drugs in accordance with state laws that doctor of nursing practice have on the regulation of aprns
Nurse practitioners known as advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) deliver healthcare in the primary, acute, and specialized healthcare systems by correctly assessing, diagnosing, and treating a range of illnesses, diseases, and injuries. The nursing care provided by the ARNPs includes prescribing drugs.
The prescriptive privilege of ARNPs is solely governed by state authorities like the state nursing board depending on the ARNP's job and level of education or certification, according to the American Association of Nurse Practitioners. The main goals of this are to protect the public's health and establish competent and safe nursing practices.
Because the laws and regulations are subject to constant modification, the regulatory authority is not under the control of the federal government.
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Answer:
Explanation:
The advanced practice nurses those who are registered have a model of regulation that sees to unify the various areas of practice in the field of nursing.
The following are the current pressing questions: First, is a practice doctorate required for advanced nursing practice or even appropriate? Second, is it appropriate to expand the area of advanced nursing practice at this time? The need for a practise doctorate in advanced practise nursing raises concerns that the distinction between doctors and nurses may become muddled, which could confuse patients in addition to raising the educational requirements for aspiring APNs and the costs associated with pursuing the necessary education.
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1. the post-bariatric surgery diet is low in kcalories and high in protein. what percent of kcalories come from protein in this 1-day soft foods diet menu?
d. 42% calories from protein
jamie houser has been diagnosed with psoriasis. jamie presents today for a laser treatment for her inflammatory skin disease; total area treated is 375 sq. cm. what is the correct code for this treatment?
The correct code for the treatment which involves Jamie having laser treatment for her inflammatory skin disease and the total area treated is 375 sq. cm is 96921 and is denoted as option C.
What is Medical coding?This is referred to as the process in which healthcare diagnosis and treatment are translated into numeric and alphanumeric characters. This is done so as to eliminate ambiguity which may cause errors by the professionals during different processes.
The CPT code for the laser treatment for inflammatory skin disease such as psoriasis is 96921 and in this scenario we were told that she went through laser treatment for the same medical condition which therefore means that the code which is 96921 is the same which is why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
A) 96913
B) 96920
C) 96921
D) 96922
the nursing instructor is leading a group discussion on the various types of birth. the instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly categorize forceps or vacuum-assisted birth as what type?
The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly categorize forceps or vacuum-assisted birth as instrumental delivery.
What is the best method of delivery?
The most common and safest method of childbirth is vaginal delivery. You may have heard that "natural childbirth" refers to a vaginal delivery without painkillers or medicines to initiate or hasten labor. Some mothers will still opt for additional medical assistance during labor, such as a heart monitor for the baby.
The infant is delivered with forceps or a ventouse suction cup during an assisted birth (also known as an instrumental delivery). Ventouse and forceps are safe and should only be used when necessary for you and your baby.
Therefore, Assisted delivery is less common in women who have previously had a spontaneous vaginal birth and categorized as instrumental delivery.
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the voice of medicine and the voice of lifeworld overlap to a large extent when the goal is preventing disease and injury rather than just treating them. true false
When the objective is preventing disease and harm rather than just treating it, it is true that the voice of medicine and the voice of the lifeworld overlap to a great extent.
The patient's contextually grounded experiences of life's occurrences and difficulties are referred to as her voice of the lifeworld. These are accounts and summaries of the world of daily living presented from the viewpoint of a "natural attitude."
Technical expertise and a focus on outcomes are highlighted by The Voice of Medicine. The doctor's employment of the Voice of Medicine during a patient-caregiver encounter typically suppresses or silences the Voice of Lifeworld, which can have detrimental effects like patient dissatisfaction or worse.
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a person's oxygen saturation is 89% and the pulse display on the pulse oximeter is aligned with the radial pulse. how should the healthcare provider respond?
Option C is the correct answer. Healthcare providers should ask the client "Are you having any difficulty breathing?".
Whenever a person's oxygen saturation level is abnormal, there might be some difficulty in the respiratory system. Healthcare providers should first ask if the client is facing any difficulty breathing. 89% Saturation level is considered to be abnormal. Further assessments should be done before any Intervention.
The first assessment should be about the Respiratory System which should also include a subjective assessment of the client's breathing. The situation of the client's current health state will determine how you proceed with the Interventions.
Hence, Option C is the correct answer and the Breathing of the client should be checked first prior to any intervention.
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Complete Question:
4. A person’s oxygen saturation is 89% and the pulse displayed on the pulse oximeter is aligned with the radial pulse. How should the healthcare provider respond?
a. Give oxygen to the client
b. Raise up the head of the client’s bed
c. Ask the client, “are you having any difficulty breathing?” **
d. Note this finding as normal and continue with the assessment
select the true statement from the choices below. a. drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription. b. prescription drugs can only be dispensed by pharmacists. c. vitamins, supplements, and herbal remedies are classified as prescription drugs and dietary supplements. d. prescription drugs are also known as over-the-counter drugs.
Rx drugs are only available with a prescription from a doctor or another licensed medical professional, such as a nurse practitioner or physician assistant.
" prescription drugs can only be dispensed by pharmacists. " is True statement.
What are the prescription and nonprescription drugs?Prescription drugs are those that are safe and effective when used under the supervision of a doctor, whereas nonprescription or OTC drugs are those that the FDA has determined are safe and effective for use without a doctor's prescription.Over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription (Rx) drugs are examples of legal drugs. Legal drugs include alcohol, nicotine, and caffeine.Rx drugs are only available with a prescription from a doctor or another licensed medical professional, such as a nurse practitioner or physician assistant. These medications are typically stronger than over-the-counter medications and can only be used by the intended person to treat a specific medical condition.To learn more about : Prescription drugs
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a. drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription.
What is the difference between prescription drugs and OTC drugs?
A drug is a substance that is used to treat, diagnose, mitigate, or prevent disease.
Prescription medications are issued by a doctor, obtained from a pharmacy, and intended for use only by the patient for whom they are issued. The FDA regulates this via the New Drug Application (NDA) process.
Nonprescription drugs are known as Over-the-counter drugs(OTC). OTC drugs are those that can be purchased without a prescription from a doctor and are found in retail establishments. Through OTC Drug monographs, the FDA regulates this. When used according to the instructions on the label and those given by your healthcare provider, they are safe and effective.
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a 100m sprinter would most likely contain which two skill-related components of fitness? question 2 options: speed and balance speed and reaction time speed and coordination speed and agility
Reaction time, speed, and power are the most important skill-related fitness components that every sprinter must excel at during the race.
Strength is defined as the ability to generate force (lifting heavy weights) speed: the ability to move quickly (sprinting) Endurance is the ability to withstand fatigue (running a marathon) Flexibility is the ability to achieve a wide range of motion at the joints (doing a split) Power is defined as the ability to exert maximum muscular contraction in an explosive burst of movements. Strength and speed are the two components of power. (For example, jumping or a sprint start) Aerobic endurance is also known as cardiovascular endurance. Marathon runners and distance cyclists need a high level of aerobic endurance to be able to work for an extended period of time during a race.
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at xyz fitness, successful candidates for personal trainers must first have a bachelor's degree in a related field and then they must pass a physical fitness test to move to the personal interview stage of the selection process. this is an example of what type of selection process?
This type of selection process is an example of a multiple hurdle model.
What is a multiple hurdle model?A multiple hurdles method is a recruitment selection structure that establishes a set of hurdles that a candidate must overcome in order to progress to the next step in the selection process. Each hurdle consists of a cutoff score. The hurdles consist of different aspects of a choice or selection test.
Educational level, cognitive ability, and other such tests will be considered before a candidate is submitted to the selection process to narrow down the candidate pool. The multiple hurdles method allows employers to narrow the candidate pool in consideration of those who are suitable for the position without affecting the effectiveness of the selection process.
The multiple hurdles model requires candidates to go through each step of the selection process. Failure to perform any step will disqualify the applicant.
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an understanding of foodways is essential to the study of nutrition because it provides a foundation for why people choose to eat the foods that they do. which is an example of foodways?
In the given options All examples of food ways are correct. With the potential to significantly impact both global health and economy, nutrition research holds the key to improving our understanding of the causes of obesity and its associated comorbidities. Hence to understand nutrition, it is important to understand the different food ways.
What are foodways?
The cultural, social, and economic activities pertaining to the production and use of food are known as "foodways" in the social sciences. The term "foodways" describes how food is woven into a society's history, culture, and traditions. Foodways bind people to a family, an ethnic or religious group, a place, a climate, and a time period. Every day, new foodways are developing or being brought back. The rediscovery of foodways has led to a rise in interest in canning and preserving.
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atrophic gastritis and decreased secretion of intrinsic factor are more common with aging. the subsequent deficiency of vitamin b12 can cause which condition to occur? select all that apply.
Chronic atrophic autoimmune gastritis is an autoimmune disease that causes progressive destruction of parietal cells, resulting in hypochlorhydria and intrinsic factor deficiency.
These changes may cause vitamin B12 deficiency and iron malabsorption. Deficiency occurs as a result of poor oral intake or a nutrient's malabsorptive process. Autoimmune chronic atrophic gastritis is a rare cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in the destruction of parietal cells and a decrease in intrinsic factor, which is required for vitamin B12 absorption. Intrinsic factor (IF) is a special protein that binds vitamin B12 so that it can be absorbed in the intestines. Cells in the stomach release this protein. When the stomach does not produce enough intrinsic factor, the intestine is unable to absorb vitamin B12.
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the client reports to the clinic as ordered by the primary care provider for counseling on weight loss to improve overall health. the client received printed information in the mail to review before the session, and reports having read through it before the appointment. which client statement alerts the nurse to a need for clarification and further education?
Begin the weight-loss conversation in a respectful and nonjudgmental manner. Patients may be more open if they believe they are respected. Begin the weight-loss conversation in a respectful and nonjudgmental manner. Mention the health risks associated with overweight and obesity before asking patients if they want to talk about their weight.
Which is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the nursing process?The assessment phase of the nursing process entails gathering information about the patient that will be used to guide care planning, recovery goals, and patient progress evaluation. Nurses can gather information about patients by pursuing the following goals.The evaluation focuses on the efficacy of the nursing interventions by reviewing the expected outcomes to see if they were met within the time frames specified.To assess the efficacy of a nursing intervention, the nurse must compare the actual patient outcome to the expected patient outcome. The expected outcomes are the measurable data that show goal achievement, whereas the actual outcomes are what actually occurred.To learn more about : Nursing intervention
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cardiovascular exercise training with the objective of developing basic health-related fitness for children should take place at least three times per week. what is the minimal recommended intensity?
The minimal recommended intensity is vigorous-intensity activity on at least 3 days per week.
Even low-intensity activity can offset some of the risks of sedentary work. Get even more benefits when you're active for at least 300 minutes a week. Gradually increase the amount and intensity over time. At least 60 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity each day. Cardio Most of his 60 minutes each day should include walking running or any activity that gets his heart pumping.
You should be physically active at least 3 days a week. The role of aerobic exercise in weight loss is to burn calories. The more you do cardiovascular exercise, the more calories you burn. If you're trying to lose weight, you should aim to do at least 250 minutes of cardio per week for at least 5 days per week. They develop healthy bones muscles and joints. Develop a healthy heart and lungs. Improve coordination strength and muscle control.
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in icd-10, which has combination codes that include the type of diabetes, what code is used if the type of diabetes is not documented in the medical record and the practitioner cannot be questioned?
The type of diabetes is not documented in the medical record and the practitioner cannot be questioned as an External cause of morbidity.
Types of diabetes mellitus affected body systems, and complications affect those body systems. According to the American Hospital Association Coding Clinic, any combination of diabetes codes can be assigned together as long as one diabetes condition is not unique to another. The order of the secondary diabetes codes in relation to the diabetic cause codes follows the instructions in the tabular list for categories E08 and E09.
Insulin use is involved in the diagnosis of type I diabetes itself. In this case, this patient is assumed to be using insulin, so there is no need to report her Z-code for long-term insulin use. Certain conditions have both an underlying etiology and symptoms of multiple body systems due to the underlying etiology. A fourth sign identifies the presence of symptoms or complications. The fifth and sixth signs identify specific types of symptoms.
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what are the differences in methodology for assessing a cancer risk versus a non-cancer risk associated with environmental exposure to chemical contaminants?
Differences in cancer risk assessment methods compared to non-cancer risks associated with environmental exposure to chemical contaminants. Air pollutants.
A term for a disease in which abnormal cells can divide uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. Cancer cells can also spread to other parts of the body through the circulatory and lymphatic systems. There are several main types of cancer.
The origin of the word "cancer" is attributed to the Greek physician Hippocrates (460-370 BC), considered "the father of medicine." Hippocrates used the terms carcinoma and carcinoma to describe non-ulcer and ulcerative tumors.
Cancer is a disease in which damaged or abnormal cells in the body begin to multiply rapidly, fail to differentiate, and form tumors. Normally, when new cells appear in the body, they multiply at a normal rate. . Every year, 10 million people die from cancer.
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transdermal patches are intended to release a drug over an extended period of time. particular care must be used with this type of drug administration owing to its design and thin metal backing. the modality of concern in medical imaging would be a. pet scanning. b. sonography. c. mri scanning. d. ct scanning.
A transdermal patch is a patch that sticks to your skin & contains medication.
Which transdermal patch do you mean?A transdermal patch is a patch that sticks to your skin & contains medication. Your person consumes the drug from the patch over time. If you'd rather not use pills or injections, several medications may well be taken most comfortably with a patch.
What kinds of transdermal patches are examples of?Besides hormone patched (estrogen, testosterone, and contraceptive), vitamin patches, pain patch (fentanyl and buprenorphine), & motion sickness patches are also frequently used transdermal (scopolamine).
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MRI scanning is the medical imaging modality of concern.
What you mean by transdermal patch?A transdermal patch is a patch that adheres to your skin and contains medication. Your body absorbs the medication from the patch over time. If you prefer not to take pills or injections, some drugs may be taken more comfortably with a patch.
A transdermal patch may have the following negative effects:
Having difficulty falling or staying asleepstomachache and a sore throatSkin sensitivity, itching, swelling, or redness in the patched area.An overdose can occur if you use too much fentanyl skin patch or combine it with too much another drug. If this occurs, seek immediate emergency assistance. An overdose can cause breathing problems, as well as loss of consciousness and death.
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which of the following definitions is correct? an antalgic gait is a limp, which reflects unilateral pain and compensation for that pain. a shuffling gait suggests loss of sensory input or loss of position information. a wide gait suggests hemiplegia or parkinsonism. a slow, narrow-based gait suggests spinal cord injury. a foot drop or slap suggests central ataxia.
An antalgic gait is a limp, which reflects unilateral pain and compensation for that pain.
The correct option is A.
What does unilateral pain mean?Or you might also feel constant but less intense discomfort. Trigeminal neuralgia is typically unilateral (meaning it only affects one side of your face). If it's unilateral, both parties will be impacted, albeit not immediately.
What causes unilateral neuropathy?This includes accidents, slips, or tension from repetitive motion. Other reasons include autoimmune infections and diseases, such as human immunodeficiency virus, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, herpes, syphilis, and Lyme disease (HIV). The so-called unilateral neuropathic pain is only sustained by asymmetrical nerve damage.
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The complete question is -
Which of the following definitions is correct?
A-An antalgic gait is a limp, which reflects unilateral pain and compensation for that pain.
B-A shuffling gait suggests loss of sensory input or loss of position information.
C-A wide gait suggests hemiplegia or Parkinsonism.
D-A slow, narrow-based gait suggests spinal cord injury.
E-A foot drop or slap suggests central ataxia.
Tell us what you know about the nursing profession. How are you an underrepresented minority in nursing or an economically disadvantaged student?
Nurses have many duties, including caring for patients, communicating with doctors, administering medicine and checking vital signs. Making up for the biggest healthcare job in the U.S., nurses play a vital role in medical facilities and enjoy a large number of job opportunities.
Few nurses from racial/ethnic minority groups with advanced nursing degrees pursue faculty careers. According to 2021 data from AACN's annual survey, only 19.2% of full-time nursing school faculty come from minority backgrounds, and only 7.4% are male.
an adult client with a long history of alcohol abuse has been diagnosed with wernicke disease. which is the most likely course of this client's health problem?
Answer: Chronic Alcohol Use
Explanation:
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome happens due to a lack of thiamine. This essential vitamin changes (converts) sugar into energy. When you have too little thiamine, your brain doesn't have enough energy to work properly. The most common cause of thiamine deficiency is chronic alcohol use.
why do you think developing nations in africa or asia might report a high number of deaths from diseases that can be controlled in the united states? what factors prevent access to prevention and treatment?
They lack the financial resources that the United States does to produce the necessary vaccines and treatments for the diseases in question. As a result, they have more deaths than the U.S. does.
shiraz has experienced migraine headaches throughout his life. he experiences symptoms for a few months then has a long symptom-free period, usually lasting 10 to 12 months. shiraz's migraines are best described as
Shiraz has experienced migraine headaches where he experiences symptoms for a few months then has no symptoms for a long time, usually lasting 10 to 12 months. Shiraz's migraines are best described as cyclic migraine.
Migraines are different from usual headaches. These are neurological disorders. This usually happens on any one side of the head. During experiencing migraine, one cam also experience nausea, vomiting or sensitivity to sound and bright light.
Cyclic migraines are different from usual migraines in their occurrence, their treatment and their lasting period. These may occur for a few days to a few weeks. On an average, a person may experience 10 migraine attacks in a month.
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louise is in the hospital, where she has been admitted against her will. she is being force-fed through intravenous tubes in an attempt to get nutrients into her body. louise is probably suffering from:
Louise is currently in the hospital after being forcibly taken there. Through intravenous catheters, she is being force-fed in an effort to feed her body with nutrition. It's likely that Louise has anorexia nervosa.
What is Anorexia nervosa?
The eating disorder anorexia nervosa, usually referred to simply as "anorexia," is characterized by an abnormally low body weight, a great fear of gaining weight, and an incorrect perception of weight. Anorexics typically make extreme attempts that drastically disrupt their lives in an effort to preserve their weight and looks.
Anorexia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that is primarily distinguished by a fear of putting on weight. The majority of people who have anorexia nervosa are underweight or have low weight.
Hence the correct answer is Anorexia nervosa.
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the most common route by which a drug is ingested into the body is oral administration, while one of the most rapid ways of getting the effects of a drug is .
The most common route by which a drug is ingested into the body is oral administration, while one of the most rapid ways of getting the effects of a drug is intravenous.
What is Intravenous?This is referred to as method in which a drug or medication is administered to a patient via the vein. It involves the use of equipment such as syringes which punctures the skin and transfers it into the bloodstream.
In the case of the oral administration, the drugs are metabolized in various parts of the body before they are released into the bloodstream which makes its effect slower.
Intravenous method of drug administration has a very rapid ways of getting the effects of a drug because it goes directly into the bloodstream and doesn't undergo extra metabolic reactions when compared to the oral route which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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