How does muscular endurance impact health and wellness?

Answers

Answer 1

Muscular endurance plays an important role in health and wellness:

Having good muscular endurance can help improve posture, balance, coordination, and agility, reducing the risk of injury. It can also help improve performance in physical activities such as running, cycling, and swimming, and can help reduce the risk of chronic diseases. Additionally, muscular endurance can help improve overall physical fitness, allowing the body to work for longer periods of time before becoming fatigued. Finally, having good muscular endurance can help improve mental and emotional health, as it can help to reduce stress and anxiety.

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Related Questions

1. In ______ both alleles are expressed in offspring.
A. Phenotyping
B. genotyping
C. complete dominance
D. incomplete dominance

2. The allele for hemophilia is on the X chromosome and is a
A. hybrid.
B. Punnett square.
C. sex-linked gene.
D. diploid.

Answers

The answers include the following:

In incomplete dominance both alleles are expressed in offspring which is denoted as option D.The allele for hemophilia is on the X chromosome and is a sex linked gene which is denoted as option C.

What is an Allele?

This is referred to as one of two or more versions of DNA sequence at a given genomic location.

Incomplete dominance is a form of gene interaction in which both alleles of a gene at a locus are partially expressed while hemophilia is a sex linked disorder as it occurs on the X chromosome which depicts females.

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if a scientist needs to put new dna into a bacterium, she must _____ the bacterium.

Answers

A bacterium must be transformed if a scientist needs to insert new DNA into it.

A plasmid vector can be modified by researchers to incorporate DNA snippets or genes, resulting in a recombinant plasmid. The transformation procedure can be used to insert this plasmid into a bacteria. Bacteria can thus be employed as factories to copy vast amounts of DNA fragments since they reproduce quickly.

Transformation (the uptake of free DNA in solution), bacteriophage-mediated transduction (i.e., both generalized and specialized transduction), and plasmid-mediated transfer (i.e., conjugation, which typically requires close contact between) are known to be the three mechanisms by which DNA transfer into bacterial cells occurs. By ligating the foreign DNA into a complementary spot, foreign DNA can be introduced into a plasmid (or any other cloning vector).

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muscle tissue composed of branching cells and intercalated discs

Answers

Cardiac muscle tissue composed of branching cells and intercalated discs. It cannot voluntarily control how much it contracts.

Only the heart has cardiac muscle, which is striated muscle. Cardiac muscle fibers are branching, have a single nucleus, and are connected to one another by intercalated discs that have gap junctions for cell depolarization and desmosomes to hold the fibers together during contractions of the heart. Cardiac and skeletal muscle cells are striated and have ordered myofibrils. Skeletal muscles do not have intercalated discs, whereas cardiac muscle cells are branching and do.Heart muscle cells can branch out at will. An intercalated disc, a crucial feature that aids in the coordinated contraction of the muscle, marks the intersection between two adjacent cells.

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Label each hotspot with the correct base to complete the DNA molecule.

Press each hotspot and enter A, T, G, or C to the corresponding number below the image.

Answers

The correct base to complete the DNA molecule as A, T, G, or C for the corresponding number below the image is A (1), T (2), G (3), A (4) and C (5) (i.e., ATGAC), which due to the base complementary rules in the DNA sequence.

What are the base complementary nucleotide (nt) rules in the DNA sequence?

The base complementary nucleotide (nt) rules in the DNA sequence refer to the matches between different nucleotide bases to form the double helix which is associated with the fact that Adenine or A always pairs with Thymine or T, while Guanine or G always pairs with Cytosine or C.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the base complementary nucleotide (nt) rules in the DNA sequence are based on the arrangement of the DNA sequence which depends on A that pairs with T and C that pairs with C.

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How is muscular endurance assessed ?

Answers

The pushup test, according to Bell, is one of the best ways to assess upper-body endurance, particularly in the muscles of the chest and shoulders.

The curl-up and push-up are the most common calisthenic-type muscular endurance tests used by fitness professionals.

Many tests measure upper and lower body muscle endurance, such as how many pushups, squats, and situps a person can do. A person can work with a fitness coach to assess muscular endurance or to keep track of how many repetitions of a particular exercise they can accomplish before feeling weary.

The Oxford Scale was born. The Oxford Scale is the most often used method of determining muscle strength (AKA Medical Research Council Manual Muscle Testing scale).

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If a gene has three alleles in a population, their frequencies must add up to ________. If a gene has three alleles in a population, their frequencies must add up to ________. 3.0 0 1.0 1.5

Answers

If a gene has three alleles in a population, their frequencies must add up to 1.0. The frequencies of all the alleles of a gene must add up to 1.0.

Allele frequency is the proportion or ratio of all gene copies that consist of a particular gene variant (allele). In other words, it is the number of copies of a particular allele divided by the total number of copies of alleles at a locus in a population. It can be expressed in the form of proportions. In population genetics, allele frequencies are used to describe the degree of genetic injury in an individual, population, and species.

Variations of a gene are called alleles. Examples of alleles in our bodies include eye color control genes, these genes have variations or alleles such as the allele for blue eyes or the allele for brown eyes.

The frequencies of all gene alleles must add up to 1.0 or 100%.

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Enzymes lower the ________________ _______________ for a reaction

Answers

Enzymes lower the _________activation energy_______ _______________ for a reaction.

What is enzymes?

Enzymes can be defined as proteins that help speed up metabolism or the chemical reactions in our bodies. They build some substances and break others down. All living things have enzymes.

There are four functions of enzymes such as:

DetoxificationMuscle buildingBreaking down food particles during digestion

Therefore enzymes actually accelerate the rate of a chemical reaction to support life. Enzymes are very helpful in performing important functions of our body.

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Human Inheritance
Understanding Main Ideas
Fill in the Punnett squares for (A) dimples, a trait
controlled by a dominant allele, and (B) colorblindness,
a trait controlled by a recessive sex-linked allele.
Then answer the questions that follow. (The father's
alleles are written across the top of the Punnett square.
The mother's alleles are written on the left side.)
5. Does either the mother or the father in A have
dimples?
6. What percentage of children are likely to have
dimples?

Answers

Over 50% of the moment, your baby will still have dimples if neither you nor your partners does. It's interesting to note that he could not even possess them but still pass the gene to his own progeny.

What in biology is a gene?

The fundamental genetic component transferred from parent to children. Genes are composed of DNA sequences and are organized sequentially at specified sites on chromosomal in the cell nucleus.

What is a gene's purpose?

A little DNA segment called a gene. Your genes carry instructions that direct your cells to produce proteins in your body. Proteins keep you healthy by serving a variety of purposes. Each genome carries directions that control your traits, including your height, eye color, and hair color.

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The diffusion of H+ ions through ATP synthase occurs during which step of the light reaction?

Answers

The diffusion of H+ ions through ATP synthase occurs during the second stage of photosynthesis called the Calvin cycle.

What is the Calvin cycle of the process of photosynthesis?

The Calvin cycle of the process of photosynthesis is a series of light dependent reactions that plants use to generate sugars, i.e., simple carbs, by using the energy from the sun and carbon dioxide.

During this stage (the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis) different ion particles move through an enzyme called the ATP synthase located in the thylakoid membrane to the chloroplastic stroma, which is a fundamental process of photosynthesis known as chemiosmosis required to generate high energy molecules of ATP that allow to carry out the subsequent molecular processes during these steps.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the Calvin cycle is fundamental during photosynthesis and it involves the diffusion of ions.

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Luz thinks that since plastic pollution is solid debris, even very tiny pieces (microplastics) cannot harm our health when we eat seafood. What detail is Luz overlooking?

Answers

Luz is  overlooking the fact that seafood also contain microplastic  which is toxic to our health. Any small among of microplastic that is been eaten can affect our health since they are toxic.

What problems do microplastics cause to humans?

Using these kinds of studies as a foundation, scientists have proposed that human exposure to microplastics may cause

oxidative stress, DNA damage, and inflammation, among other health issues. Inflammation can lead to potentially serious health issues, especially when it becomes chronic.

Once within the body, these compounds may seep from the plastic's surface, increasing the likelihood of harmful effects. The ability to cause cancer is one of microplastics' carcinogenic qualities. In addition, they are sometimes mutagenic, which means they can harm DNA.

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The role of both sexes in fulfilling the function of the reproductive system is to ________.
A) produce hormones that support the growth and development of the embryo and fetus
B) produce gametes
C) bear young
D) produce hormones that help maintain homeostasis

Answers

I believe the answer is..

C) bear young

This is because to fulfill the function of the reproductive system means that both sexes must produce children or offspring and that is what bear young means.

The role of both sexes in fulfilling the function of the reproductive system is to produce gametes. Therefore, option (B) is correct.

What is reproductive system?

Both males and females produce specialized reproductive cells called gametes. In males, these gametes are sperm cells, while in females, they are egg cells or ova. The production of gametes is essential for sexual reproduction as it allows for the fusion of sperm and egg during fertilization, resulting in the formation of a zygote and subsequent development of an embryo.

While the reproductive systems of males and females have additional functions and roles, such as the production of hormones, maintenance of homeostasis, and support for the growth and development of the embryo and fetus, the fundamental role shared by both sexes is the production of gametes for sexual reproduction.

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a child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's.

Answers

A child's tongue takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than an adult's.

The digestive and respiratory systems both include the pharynx, sometimes known as the throat. From the nose and mouth, it transports air, food, and liquid downward. Many common ailments, such as tonsillitis and sore throats, affect the pharynx.

The pharynx anatomy consists of:

Nasopharynx: The nasal cavity (nose) is connected to the top of the throat, which allows air to travel through.the area of the throat that links to the oral cavity is called the oropharynx (mouth). It permits the passage of food, drink, and air.Laryngopharynx: The larynx is close to the bottom of the throat, also known as the hypopharynx (or voice box). It controls how fluids and food travel down the esophagus and how air enters the lungs.

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Circle the term that does not belong in each of the following groupings.responsiveness - growth - reproduction - biology - movement

Answers

Biology (others are basic functions).The study of various life branches is the main objective of this division. Botany, human biology, microbiology, and zoology are the four main divisions.

All groupings of living things have a number of essential traits or abilities, such as order, sensitivity to stimuli or response, reproduction, adaptation, growth and development, regulation, homeostasis, and energy processing. Sensing changes in the internal or external environments and responding to such changes are the focus of responsiveness or irritability. It entails the process of recognising a stimuli and reacting to it. Growth is the term used to describe how a body or its organs gain weight and size. Usually, it happens as a result of intracellular substance production and cell division.

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nitrogen-fixing bacteria is(are) indicated by the letter(s) _____.

Answers

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria is(are) indicated by the letter(s) D and E. Nitrates are produced by microorganisms that fix nitrogen in the atmosphere. decay-causing bacteria that transform discarded nitrogen into ammonia.

Nitrates into nitrogen gas using denitrifying microorganisms. Without direct contact with other species, the soil is home to a large number of heterotrophic bacteria that fix huge amounts of nitrogen. Species of Azotobacter, Bacillus, Clostridium, and Klebsiella are examples of this kind of nitrogen-fixing bacterium. Bacteria in the soil are responsible for the majority of nitrogen fixing. Figure 3 (above) depicts the fixation and form exchange of nitrogen that is taking place in the soil. Some microorganisms adhere to plant roots and form symbiotic relationships with them, which are advantageous to both the plant and the microorganism.

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the aids virus becomes established in cells bearing the __________ receptor.

Answers

The aids virus becomes established in cells bearing the primary cellular receptor.

Cellular receptors are proteins that detect signals and can be found within or on the surface of a cell. This chemical signal occurs in normal physiology when a protein-ligand interacts with a protein receptor. The ligand is a chemical messenger that one cell releases to signal another cell or itself.

The binding has biological effects that can take a variety of forms, such as affecting the transcription or translation of genes or modifying the shape of the cell. A single receptor is typical all that a single ligand needs to connect to in order to activate a cell. Cellular signaling may take on a variety of forms, each of which is dependent on certain ligands and cellular receptors.

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How you manage hazardous chemicals in a workplace as part of your risk management plan?

Answers

Hazardous substances are defined as chemical elements or compounds that could endanger people, property, or the environment that were obtained or created by a process.

If you want to ensure that the storage solutions you implement genuinely minimize the danger that these substances represent to your workplace, it is imperative to follow the STOREMASTA technique for controlling the risks connected with hazardous chemicals.

If you want to ensure that the storage solutions you implement genuinely minimize the danger that these substances represent to your workplace, it is imperative to follow the STOREMASTA technique for controlling the risks connected with hazardous chemicals.

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Identify the stages of meiosis on the diagram. Answer Bank Homologous pairs split up in anaphase 1 Crossing over happens between homologous pairs in prophase 1 Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up in metaphase 1 Sister chromatids line up in the center of the cell during metaphase II Sister chromatids separate Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up in metaphase 1 Sister chromatids line up in the center of the cell during metaphase II Sister chromatids separate in anaphase II. Telophase II and cytokinesis produces four cells Telophase I and cytokinesis forms two cells, Spindle fibers reform in prophase II. Chromosomes replicate sisterphase

Answers

According to the given statement 4 cells are created by cytokinesis and telophase.

In simple terms, what is meiosis?

One initiating cell can generate four gametes during meiosis because it divides twice (eggs or sperm). The four phases of prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are experienced by cells during each round of division.

The following labels describe the stages of meiosis:

In interphase, chromosomes replicate.

Prophase 1 is the time when homologous chromosomes cross over.

In meiosis 1, a homologous pair of chromosomes line up.

In Anaphase 1, a homologous pair of chromosomes separates.

Two cells are formed by cytokinesis and telophase 1.

At prophase 2, the spindle fibers regenerate.

In metaphase 2, sister chromatid align themselves at the cell's center. In anaphase 2, sister chromatid separate.

4 cells are created by cytokinesis and telophase.

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a man who has had a successful orchiectomy may still be able to have children because ______.

Answers

A man who has had a successful orchiectomy may still be able to have children because the remaining testis is able, by itself, to produce a sufficient amount of testosterone.

What happens to a man after orchiectomy?

However, sperm cannot be produced and a man is sterile if both testicular are removed. A guy cannot produce enough testosterone without his testicles, which might reduce his sex desire and impair his capacity to erection. The possibility of weariness, heat flushes, and muscular mass loss are other complications.

How uncomfortable is an orchiectomy?

Most men have discomfort that necessitates taking painkillers for 1-2 weeks. After a while, the soreness normally starts to significantly lessen, however there can be moments of the day when it hurts more. The most uncomfortable times for many guys are while they are seated or at night. For six to eight weeks, a dull discomfort or soreness is typical.

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According to the cell theory, all organisms are made of ____________________ .
A. Cells
B. Protein
C. Both
D. None of these

Answers

Answer: A

Explanation:

the thermic effect of food represents about _____% of the total food energy taken in.

Answers

The thermic effect of food represents about 10% of the total food energy taken in.

The amount of energy used beyond the baseline metabolic rate owing to the expense of digesting food for consumption and storage is known as specific dynamic action (SDA), also known as thermic effect of food (TEF) or dietary induced thermogenesis (DIT). Another component of food induced thermogenesis is heat generation by brown adipose tissue, which is stimulated after a meal.

Food's thermic impact, along with resting metabolic rate and exercise component, is one of the components of metabolism. Thermic impact of food is typically estimated to be roughly 10% of calorie intake, while the effect varies significantly for different dietary components. For example, dietary fat is relatively easy to metabolize and has very little thermic effect, but protein has a significant thermic effect.

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Mechanisms of density-dependent selection includes all of the following except _______.
a. the size of the brood
b. competition for resources
c. disease
d. predation
e. territoriality

Answers

Mechanisms of density-dependent selection include all of the following except (a) the size of the brood.

When the witnesses of genotypes within a population react differentially to changes in population size or density, this phenomenon is known as density-dependent selection. Witnesses are said to decline with population growth according to the density-regulation of a population in a steady environment.

The mean fitness per generation must equal one in a discrete-time model or zero in a continuous-time model at equilibrium or carrying capacity in a constant environment, with individuals on average replacing themselves during their lifetimes, preventing the maximisation of the mean fitness in long-term evolution.

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Thirst is the result of reduced extracellular fluid volume and ____________________________.
a. ADH
b. aldosterone
c. renin-angiotensin
d. sodium

Answers

Thirst is the result of reduced extracellular fluid volume and ADH.

ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is released when there is a drop in the quantity of water in the blood, which encourages fluid reabsorption from the kidneys and also sends signals to the thirst center in the hypothalamus, inducing thirst.

ADH is a hormone that aids in the constricting of blood vessels and aids the kidneys in controlling the quantity of water and salt in the body. This regulates blood pressure and the volume of urine produced.

The hypothalamus in the brain produces ADH, which is then retained in the posterior pituitary gland near the base of the brain. The pituitary gland ordinarily releases ADH in response to sensors that recognize an increase in blood osmolality (the quantity of dissolved particles in the blood) or a reduction in blood volume.

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In the metabolic pathway shown in Figure 16.2, each step is catalyzed by ________. See Section 16.1 (Page) .A.) one enzymeB.) several genes that work togetherC.) a series of enzymesD.) one gene

Answers

I can’t see the the pathway shown on figure 16.2, but if it’s being catalyzed then the answer is related to enzymes.

I’m assuming that each step is catalyzed by C) a series of of enzymes

What type of cell is this

Answers

Answer:

Plant Cell

To me, it looks like a plant cell, but I may not be correct.

Hope this helps :)

The other person is right, this is a plant cell. If you were to look up what a plant cell looks like then you’d be able tell

Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, ________ yields energy the quickest.
- glycogen
- protein
- glucose
- an amino acid
- fat

Answers

Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, glucose

yields energy the quickest.

What is citric acid cycle ?

The Krebs cycle, sometimes called the TCA cycle or the calvin cycle, is a series of chemical processes that take place in the mitochondria and are essential for the aerobic respiration that provides energy to nearly all living things. It consumes oxygen and produces carbon dioxide and water as waste.

The citric acid cycle takes place where?

The TCA cycle, also renowned as the citric acid cycling or Krebs cycle, takes place in the mitochondria and generates a significant amount of energy under aerobic conditions by electron donation to one FADH (flavin adenine dinucleotide), three NADH (naphthalene adenine dinucleotides), and three NADH (naphthalene dihydrochloride) donors. These donors then donate electron carrier chain, generating the proton

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During the 400 m sprint (50-60 s long), which two metabolic pathways will be primary involved? For aerobic metabolism, free fatty acids must be converted to acetyl-CoA via An example of an energy substrate is

Answers

ATP-PCr, glycolysis two metabolic pathways will be primary involved.

The correct option is A.

What are the three main metabolic pathways?

In order to produce ATP, humans primarily use glucose oxidation and glycolysis as metabolic processes. The Krebs cycle, often known as the citric acid cycle, uses acetyl-CoA oxidation to create GTP and helpful intermediates. disposal of electrons produced by the citric acid cycle and glycolysis by oxidative phosphorylation.

Is glycolysis' metabolic pathway?

The metabolic process that converts glucose to pyruvate is known as glycolysis. During the glycolysis process, the free energy generated by metabolic processes led to a significant deficit of 2 ATP molecules. A biological pathway is the insulin transduction pathway.

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The complete question is -

During the 400m spring (50-60 s long), which two metabolic pathways will be primarily involved?

A-ATP-PCr, glycolysis

B-Glycolysis, B-oxidation

C-ATP-PCr, glycolysis

D-B-oxidation, oxidative phosphorylation

Why is bromophenol blue added to the individual DNA samples?

Multiple Choice

O It stabilizes the DNA samples.
O It helps separate the DNA bands in each sample.
O It allows the observer to view how far the DNA samples travel.
O None of the answer choices are correct.
O It is negatively charged and will pull the DNA samples towards the positive side of the chamber.

Answers

Bromophenol blue added to the individual DNA samples because It allows the observer to view how far the DNA samples travel.

Bromophenol blue or xylene cyanol can be used as loading dyes, mixed with nucleic acid samples, and electrophoresis continued until these dyes migrate to the opposite side. Gels are visualized by exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light after staining with ethidium bromide or he SYBR green.

When electrophoresis buffer is poured onto the agarose gel, it charges the DNA sample and allows it to move more easily through the chamber. Bromothymol blue (BTB) is a pH indicator. It is also known as bromothymol sulfonphthalein. It is primarily used in applications requiring the measurement of relatively neutral (pH close to 7) substances. A common application is to measure the presence of carbonic acid in liquids.

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What is muscular strength in health related fitness?

Answers

Muscular strength in health-related fitness is the quantity of force anyone has to put out or we can say the quantity of weight anyone can lift.

The capacity of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions against a force over an extended period of time is known as muscular endurance. If you have a better level of physical endurance, you will be able to perform a greater number of repetitions.

When you get out of a chair, pick up a heavy object, or move a piece of furniture, you are using your muscular strength. This is true even if you don't think you are. In the weight room, a demonstration of physical strength would be performing one repetition at a specific weight.

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The most serious environmental effect of rising sea levels is saltwater contamination of fresh water. The increasing number of high tides. Possible flooding of low lying areas. Damage to wharfs and docks.

Answers

The correct option  (C) possible flooding of low lying areas

The inundation and displacement of wetlands and lowlands, coastal erosion, greater susceptibility to coastal storm damage and floods, salinization of surface water and groundwater, and coastal storm damage are the most severe physical effects of progressive sea-level rise on coastal lowlands.

Glacial melting, thermal expansion, salinity changes, activity at ocean ridges, ocean sedimentation, atmospheric storage, on-land storage of water, and groundwater storage are all examples of water storage processes. Sea levels rise as a result of the return to the sea of water frozen as ice on land.

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Full Qusetion : The most serious environmental effect of rising sea levels is A. saltwater contamination of fresh water. B. the increasing number of high tides. C. possible flooding of low lying areas. D. damage to wharfs and docks.

What does 4 times as old mean?

Answers

4 times as old means that one person is four times the age of the other person.

The phrase '4 times as old' is used to describe someone’s age relative to another person. It means that a particular person is 4 times the age of the other person.

For example, if one person is 8 years old and the other is 32 years old, the 32-year-old is considered to be 4 times as old as the 8-year-old.

To put it another way, the 8-year-old is a quarter of the age of the 32-year-old. It is important to note that this phrase only applies to age and cannot be used to measure any other type of comparison.

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Consider the table that includes the input and output values of a function. An increase in the value of a home is called a) Appreciation b) Depreciation c) Amortization d) Equity the orientation of an mrna codon relative to a trna anticodon is best described as: a. antiparallel. b. parallel. c. perpendicular. d. non-complementary. Using the formula ln(p1/p2)=(delta H/R)(1/T2-1/T1)The normal boiling point of benzene is 80.1C, and the heat of vaporization is AHvap 30.7 kJ/mol. What is the boiling point of benzene in "C on the top of Mt. Everest where P 260 mmHg? After reading the email, you notice that the acronym whm appears in multiple places. You look it up online, and the most common result is web host manager. That doesn't seem right to you, as it doesn't fit the context of a feminist bookstore. You email your supervisor to ask. When writing your email, what do you do to ensure it sounds professional? select all that apply. When looking to advertise your business to mobile users, social media advertising can be really effective becauseA it allows you to target people who have ad blockers enabledB it can be seen by people who arent logged into their accountsC it allows you to target people based on their likes and interestsD it doesnt cost too much to spread your ads far ainsworth concluded that the quality of attachment was based mainly on how ____ the mother was. The mass of a wood is 19.5061g. When it was dropped in a cylinder, it had initial water volume of 8.75cm^3, the total volume was 9.76cm3. What is the density of the piece of metal in g/cm3 How does the author's hook engage the reader? ________ of unemployment during ________ make it easier for workers to ________ wages. Let A and B be nxn matrices. Show that if AB is invertible, then B is invertible. (Note that IMT stands for Invertible Matrix Theorem.) a. Let W be the inverse of AB. Then WAB=B. Therefore we can write B as the product of two invertible matrices Wand AB, and this makes B invertible. The product of two invertible matrices is invertible by Theorem 6 in Section 2.2. b. Since AB is invertible, then (AB)T is invertible by the IMT. Therefore the matrix Bis invertible by part (1) of the IMT. c. Since AB is invertible, this means that A= B-1 and B = A-1 by the IMT. Therefore B is invertible. d. Let W be the inverse of AB. Then WAB=I and (WA)B=l. Therefore, the matrix Bis invertible by part (j) of the IMT by letting C=WA. The physician has prescribed 0.9% sodium chloride IV for a hospitalized client in metabolic alkalosis. Which nursing actions are required to manage this client Why is it important to monitor your heart rate before during and after exercising or training ? Which surfaces should Sanitisers be used on? Do bonds generate passive income? 3Which statement BEST describes the effect of human urbanization on biodiversity in the Amazon rainforest?A Human urbanization increases biodiversity because cleared land attracts more species into an area.B Human urbanization decreases biodiversity because habitats and resources are lost to native species.C Human urbanization increases biodiversity because of non-native species introduced to the food web.D Human urbanization decreases biodiversity because limiting factors of the forest ecosystem are reduced. Consider the nuclear equation below.Which is the missing value that will balance the equation? A school ordered 3 large boxes of markers. After giving 15 markers to each of 3 teachers, there were 90 markers left in the box. Draw a diagram and write an equation to represent this situation. there are four basic categories of software: commercial software, shareware, freeware, and ____. there are two large classes of adaptations. these are ___________.A.)a hypothesis is correctB.)our experiment was conducted properlyC.)our results for an experiment are correctD.)our observations of an event differ from our expectations