If you are mediating a conflict, what action should you take? - try to get both parties to see you as the enemy so that they are more willing to work together - take a side as early as you can - ask open rather than leading questions Professionals in conflict resolution training suggest four areas of skill development. three of them are listening, communicating nonverbally, and mediating. what is the fourth? - questioning - demonstrating empathy - remaining neutral Which of the following is not a mediation skill? - remaining neutral - staying calm - arguing

Answers

Answer 1

Argumentation or using strong language to express your disagreement with someone is not a technique for conflict resolution. Argue is the most frequently used term. If you'd like, you can engage in a discussion.

What does place in your brain when you meditate?

As a result, your brain's memory, learning, focus, and other areas may get stronger. The technique might also reduce sympathetic nerve activity. Mindfulness meditation can improve cognition, recall, and focus over time.

What is the meditation's actual power?

You might become more aware and purposeful in your behaviors by meditating. It teaches you when and how to react to life's events rather than how to act to them. Meditation seems easy. But to continue, you must must have the necessary strength of mind and body.

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Related Questions

Which of the following BEST describes the interpretation of the balance of power between the states and the federal government as laid out in the McCulloch v. Maryland decision?
A. States may not seek to influence federal office holders.
B. States may not tax instruments of the federal government.
C. The federal government may not apply regulations in the states.
D. The federal government may not interfere in exclusively state business.

Answers

The correct answer to the given question about McCulloch v. Maryland decision is option B) States may not tax instruments of the federal government.

The federal government has the right to create a federal bank, according to the court, and states were not allowed to charge the federal government. Marshall found in the government's favor and came to the conclusion that "the right to tax implies the power to destroy." In essence, McCullough v. Maryland determined that states lacked the authority to tax the federal government and gave the government the authority to establish a national bank. In McCulloch v. Maryland (17 U.S. 316), the U.S. Supreme Court rendered a landmark decision that defined the scope of the legislative authority of the U.S. Congress and its relationship to the power of American state legislatures to pass laws.

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Following BEST portrays the understanding of the overall influence between the states and the national government as spread out in the McCulloch v. Maryland choice is States may not tax instruments of the federal government.

The federal government has the privilege to make a bureaucratic bank, as indicated by the court, and states were not permitted to charge the central government. Marshall tracked down the public authority's approval and arrived at the resolution that "the option to burden suggests the ability to annihilate." basically, McCullough v. Maryland verified that states coming up short on power to burden the central government and gave the public authority the position to lay out a public bank. In McCulloch v. Maryland (17 U.S. 316).

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when a buyer breaches the real estate sale contract, the seller may file a lawsuit for compensatory damages. which of the following best describes compensatory damages?
a. compensation for actual loss based not he contracts value
b. Accepting partial performance

Answers

Compensation for actual loss based not he contracts value best describes compensatory damages

Money that is granted to an affected party as compensation for losses, injuries, or other losses is known as compensatory damages. In civil law situations where loss has happened as a result of yet another party's negligence or illegal behaviour, compensatory damages are granted. The plaintiff must demonstrate that a claim for damages and that it was due to the defendant in order to be awarded compensatory damages. Additionally, the plaintiff must be able to demonstrate to the jury or court how much they have lost.

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Option A is the correct answer that is compensation for actual loss based not he contracts value.

What are the two types of compensatory?

There are two sorts of compensatory damages—general and actual. Actual damages are intended to supply dollars to only exchange what was lost. General compensatory damages awarded are greater complex, as these compensatory damages do now not characterize a economic expenditure.

What is the commonplace aim of compensatory damages?

Compensatory damages are designed to compensate plaintiffs for the actual losses they've experienced. This kind of award can be to reimburse them for scientific treatments, medical bills, or any future charges they might also have due to an injury they sustained due to the negligence of another individual or entity.

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counterfeit drugs: fighting illegal supply chains: hearing before the subcommittee on oversight and investigations of the committee on energy and commerce. a. true
b. false

Answers

Hearing before the committee on energy and commerce's subcommittee on oversight and investigations about combating unlawful supply networks and counterfeit drugs. It is true.

A body of one or more people under the authority of a deliberative assembly is known as a committee or commission. A committee isn't taken into account to be an assembly in and of itself. The assembly typically refers issues to a committee in order to investigate them in greater detail than would be practicable if the assembly were to consider them directly. Depending on the sort of organization and its requirements, committees may have a variety of roles and work styles.

A committee assignment, which entitles a legislator to participate in a certain committee, may be given to a member of the legislature.

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The correct option  a. true; Hearing well before subcommittee on oversight as well as investigations of a committee on energy but also commerce regarding counterfeit drugs and combating unlawful supply chains is a correct statement.

Define the term counterfeit drugs?Medications that have been made or packaged fraudulently are referred to as counterfeit or fake drugs because they either lack active ingredients or have the incorrect dosages.Medicine that is illegal or counterfeit is phoney medicine and could be dangerous to your health.

In order to address these issues, solutions should be discovered for

Enhance the legal system, i.e., laws should be updated.Enhance the stringent enforcement of drug regulations, i.e., stiffer penalties could be enforced on individuals who violate anti-counterfeiting legislation.Raising awareness entails planning public education initiatives and health professional awareness programmes (doctors,   nurses, dentists, etc.)

Thus, Illegal online sales are one method that consumers in the United States could well be exposed to potentially counterfeit pharmaceuticals.

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statment 1: ppi measures the average change in the selling price that domestic producers receice for their output during a given time period.
a. true
b. false

Answers

Statment 1: ppi measures the average change in the selling price that domestic producers receice for their output during a given time period. This statement is True.

The cost of a selection of wholesale items is gauged by the wholesale pricing index (WP). The total value of all finished products and services produced in an economy during a specific time period typically a year is known as the gross domestic product. The consumer price index calculates the cost of both domestic and imported goods.

The average change in price of domestic materials and services is measured by the producer price index. The consumer price index tracks changes in average retail prices for goods and services. This is accomplished by using the weighted average price of a certainly consumer market. The change in prices of the output generated by domestic producers is tracked by the producer price index. These 2 indices, however, both contain and exclude a number of criteria. As they affect consumers, sales and taxes paid for goods and services are included in CPl. PPI, however, does not include the taxes and sales.

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Which of the following are project manager responsibilities during the execution phase? Select all that apply.
a. Do the majority of the work
b. Manage the project's progress
c. Make adjustments to the schedule, budget, and resources
d. Handle communication for the team

Answers

The concept mentioned is Project manager, is a professional who organizes, plans, and executes projects while working within restraints like budgets and schedules. The answer is options B, C, and D:  Manage the project's progress, Make adjustments to the schedule, budget, and resources and Handle communication for the team.

Project managers lead entire brigades, define project pretensions, communicate with stakeholders, and see a design through to its check. Whether running a marketing crusade, constructing a structure, developing a computer system, or launching a new product, the design director is responsible for the success or failure of the design.

A Project Manager is responsible for the planning, procurement, prosecution, and completion of a design. The design director is in charge of the entire design and handles everything involved, similar to the design compass, managing the design platoon, as well as the coffers assigned to the design.

The Project Manager monitors the progress of the platoon, identifies issues or pitfalls that do, creates a mitigation plan with the platoon, and regularly reports on the design's status to the colorful cult.

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which 3 of these areas does the new client checklist tool focus on to help gather the information needed to select the right quickbooks online subscription for a client?

Answers

There are three ways to get client's QuickBooks data into your QBO company firstly manually enter the information, use IIF files and use service of a conversion expert.

What does a corporation mean?

A group of people can come together to legally form a corporation to do business and run a commercial or industrial venture. Depending on its jurisdiction's corporate legislation, a corporation may be set up in a variety of ways for tax and financial liability reasons.

Describe a one-person business.

At the moment of conversion into an OPC, the company must have one member, and it must designate one nominee to serve in that position in the event that member passes away or becomes incapacitated.

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You are conducting a one-sided test of the null hypothesis that the population mean is 532 versus the alternative that the population mean is less than 532. If the sample mean is 529 and the p-value is 0.01, which of the following statements is true? a. There is a 0.01 probability that the population mean is smaller than 529. b. The probability of observing a sample mean smaller than 529 when the population mean is 532 is 0.01. c. There is a 0.01 probability that the population mean is smaller than 532. d. If the significance level is 0.05, you will accept the null hypothesis. e. none of the above

Answers

Option (b), When the population mean is 532, there is a 0.01 chance of seeing a sample mean that is less than 529.

What is the straightforward meaning of probability?

A probability is a numerical expression of the likelihood or possibility that a certain event will occur. Probabilities can be expressed as percentages with a 0% to 100% range or as proportions with a 0 to 1 range.

Probability, in its simplest form, gauges the likelihood that something will happen. When we are unsure of how an event will turn out, we might talk about the likelihood of different outcomes. The study of events susceptible to probability is known as statistics.

In a one-tailed test, the following hypotheses are used:

H0: μ= 532 versus

Ha: μ<532

The significance level (a)= 0.01 can be found using,

ɑ= 0.01= P (Reject ‘H0’ | ‘H0: μ= 532’)

ɑ= 0.01= P (Sample mean less than 529 | ‘H0: μ= 532’)

The statements in (a) and (c) demonstrate the likelihood of the population mean rather than "statistics" (sample mean). Considering that the probabilities relate to the sample values.

The likelihood of detecting a "sample mean" less than 529 under "H0" is used in the statement "b"), making it the right interpretation of the p-value.

In d), we reject the "null hypothesis" if the "p-value" is less than 0.05.

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If H represents the number of hours spent on an activity, then which of the following could represent a marginal cost function?
O 100H - 20H2
O 100H + 20H2
O -100H - 20H2
O -100H + 20H2

Answers

-100H - 20H2 could represent a marginal cost function.

The marginal cost function represents the additional cost incurred by a firm to produce one more unit of output. It is the derivative of the total cost function, which represents the total cost of producing a given level of output.

In this case, the marginal cost function has a negative coefficient on the H term (-100H), which means that the marginal cost decreases as the number of hours (H) spent on the activity increases. The negative coefficient on the H^2 term (-20H^2) indicates that the marginal cost decreases at a decreasing rate as H increases.

The other options do not have the correct signs on the coefficients to represent a marginal cost function.

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which of the following practices was adopted during the establishment of minnesota statehood and allowed settlers to buy a tract of land,break it down into smaller lots, and sell for lots of profit?

Answers

The practice that was adopted during the establishment of Minnesota statehood and allowed settlers to buy a tract of land,break it down into smaller lots, and sell for lots of profit was option A. Homestead Act

How did settlers get land in Minnesota?

The Homestead Act of 1862 permitted settlers to acquire land for free as long as they habited on it for five years and contribute to the development such as building a house. The Homestead Act ensure immigration of 75,000 people to Minnesota in its first three years, quickly settling the prairie and displacing the Dakota living there.

Therefore, the correct answer is as given above

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which of the following practices was adopted during the establishment of minnesota statehood and allowed settlers to buy a tract of land,break it down into smaller lots, and sell for lots of profit?

A. Homestead Act

B. Farming

C. Thirteenth amendment

D. None of the above

Mutiyara Berhad is interested in measuring its overall cost of capital. Current investigation has gathered the following data. The firm is in the 40% tax bracket.

Mutiyara Berhad can raise debt by selling RM1000 par value, 8% coupon interest rate, 20 years bonds on which annual interest payments will be made. to sell the issue, an average discount of RM30 per bond would have to be given. The firm also must pay floatation cost of RM30 per bond.

The firm can sell 8% preferred stock at its RM95 per share par value. The cost of issuing and selling the preferred stock is expected to be RM5 per share. Preferred stock can be sold under these terms.

The firm’s common stock is currently selling for RM90 per share. The firm expects to pay cash dividends of RM7 per share next year. The firm’s dividends have been growing at annual rate of 6%, and this growth expected to continue into the future. The stock must be underpriced by RM7 per share, and the floatation costs are expected to amount to RM5 per share. The firm can sell new common stock under these terms.

When measuring this cost, the firm does not concern itself with the tax bracket or brokerage fees of owners. It expects to have available RM100,000 of retained earnings in the coming year; once these retained earnings are exhausted, the firm will use new communication stock as the form of common stock equity financing.

a) Calculate the after-tax cost of debt
b)Calculate the cost of preferred stock
c) Calculate the cost of new common stock.
d)Calculate the firm’s weighted average cost of capital using retained earnings and the capital structure weights shown in the table above.

Answers

a) The after-tax cost of debt is 5.18%

b) The cost of preferred stock is 8.44%

c) The cost of new common stock is 14.97%.

d)The firm’s weighted average cost of capital using retained earnings and the capital structure weights shown in the table is 10.73%.

What is cost of debt?

The effective interest rate that a company pays on its debts, such as bonds and loans, is referred to as the cost of debt. The cost of debt can refer to either the before-tax cost of debt (the company's cost of debt before taxes) or the after-tax cost of debt

A company's preferred stock cost is effectively the price it pays in exchange for the income generated by issuing and selling the stock. In other words, it is the amount of money paid out by the company in a year divided by the lump sum received from issuing the stock.

The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of a company is the amount of money it must pay to finance its operation

The calculations for the sum is attached below.

Therefore, the firm's after-tax cost of debt, cost of preferred stock, cost of new common stock, and weighted average cost is calculated.

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a data analyst receives an email from the vice president of marketing. the vice president is upset because the report they want from the analyst is late. select the best course of action.
a. the analyst should apologize for a deley and inform the vice president that marketing managers caused tthe deley
b. the analyst should call the vice president and ask them how important it realy is to their marketing efforts
c. the analyst should respond saying they understand the vice president concerns provide a status update, and let the vice president know when to expect the complated report d. the analyst should send the report immediately even if it's not completely finished this will make the vice president happy

Answers

As the vice president is upset because the report they want from the analyst is late, the best course of action will be c. the analyst should respond saying they understand the vice president concerns provide a status update, and let the vice president know when to expect the completed report

The data analyst should understand the concerns of the Vice President, and apologize for the delay of the report. He should actively work on it and you can tell the vice president the expect date it to be completed.

In the meantime, The data analyst should provide the vice president with a status update to ensure that you remain informed of its progress. He should also thank him for his patience. hence, option c is the correct option in the above based scenario.

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Due to an increase in consumer wealth, there is a $40 billion autonomous increase in consumer spendingin the economies of Westlandia and Eastlandia. Assuming that the aggregate price level is constant, theinterest rate is fixed in both countries, and there are no taxes and no foreign trade, complete theaccompanying tables to show the various rounds of increased spending that will occur in both economiesif the marginal propensity to consume is 0.5 in Westlandia and 0.75 in Eastlandia. What do your resultsindicate about the relationship between the size of the marginal propensity to consume and the multiplier

Answers

MPC and investment multiplier have a positive association and When the MPC value is 0.5 in the Westlandia data above, the value of K is 2, and when the MPC value is 0.75 in Eastlandia, value of K similarly rises.

What is marginal propensity economics?

The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is the portion of a customer's overall wage rise that they choose to spend on products and services rather than saving.

Briefing:

GDP change overall equals (1/1-0.75) Consumption change equals 4 alteration in consumption

Relationship between MPC and Investment multiplier (K)

MPC and investment multiplier have a positive association, meaning that when MPC value grows, investment multiplier value likewise rises.

When the MPC value is 0.5 in the Westlandia data above, the value of K is 2, and when the MPC value is 0.75 in Eastlandia, the value of K similarly rises to 4.

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The Georgianna Randall Trust files its 2016 return on the due date, April 18, 2017, and pays $3,500 in taxes du with the return. If the trustee wishes to file a claim for refund, she must file the claim no later than: A. April 18, 2018 B. April 18, 2019 C. April 18, 2020 D. April 18, 2021

Answers

The Georgianna Randall Trust submits its 2016 tax return by the deadline of April 18, 2017, along with a $3,500 tax payment. The deadline for the trustee to submit a claim for reimbursement is April 18, 2020.

If yes, under what circumstances can a trustee get compensation?

According to the Indian Trusts Act, pay for services as a trustee must be expressly authorized in the trust's deed.

A trustee is allowed to spend trust funds to cover expenses.

In accordance with section 31(1) of the Trustee Act 2000, a trustee may use trust funds to pay legitimate operating expenses incurred while acting on behalf of the trust or may be entitled to reimbursement.

The Georgianna Randall Trust must submit its request for a refund by the latest of the three dates listed below:

Following the initial tax return for three yearsFirst tax filing due was three years ago, and Tax payment was made two years ago.

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Use your knowledge of distributive and integrative negotiation to select the best answers for the following questions. Although this form of alternative dispute resolution always results in a settlement, it has greater potential to leave at least one party dissatisfied, which could cause the conflict to resurface later. O Mediation O Arbitration O Conciliation

Answers

Although B) Arbitration form of alternative dispute resolution always results in a settlement, it has greater potential to leave at least one party dissatisfied, which could cause the conflict to resurface later

Arbitration is a form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) that is often used to resolve disputes quickly and cost-effectively.

While it typically results in a settlement, the potential for one or both parties to feel dissatisfied with the outcome can lead to the conflict resurfacing in the future.

Therefore, it is important to ensure that all parties are adequately represented and that the process is fair and equitable. The use of an experienced arbitrator can help to ensure that the result is satisfactory to all parties involved.

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Purchases for __ are unplanned. decisions to buy this product type and brand are made on the spur-of-the-moment as consumers are ostensibly shopping for other products.

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Purchases for Impulse good purchases are unplanned. Decisions to buy this product type and brand are made on the spur-of-the-moment as consumers are ostensibly shopping for other products.

Shopping is an activity in which a consumer browses the available goods or services offered by one or more businesses with the purpose of purchasing a satisfactory selection of them. Consumers may now search for product information and place product orders across many locations, making online shopping a key disruptor in the retail industry.

Online retailers ship their items to customers' homes, offices, or anywhere they wish. Consumers may now easily choose any goods online from a retailer's website and have them delivered very fast thanks to the B2C procedure.

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The answer to the given fill in the blanks question about unplanned purchase of a product is Impulse good

Unplanned purchases are those that a customer makes at a brick-and-mortar or online retailer without prior planning. The typical customer's shopping trip is organized. Phases of the customer's purchasing trip include need identification, information search, alternative evaluation and decision-making, purchase, pre- and post-purchase evaluation, and consuming. Customers therefore have an idea of the things they wish to purchase from the company before they approach a physical or online store. Customers frequently leave the store with a list of purchases that were not originally planned, depending on a variety of circumstances that we'll explain below. We refer to this as "unplanned purchase"

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When a listing agent is selling a property using a seller carryback the agent should be most concerned with:
A. Clear title
B. The buyer's income
C. The seller's financial status
D. Listing price

Answers

When a listing agent is selling a property using a seller carryback the agent should be most concerned with: The buyer's income.

What is a seller carryback?Seller carryback finance is, to put it simply, owner-provided money. By carrying a mortgage on the property and receiving monthly payments from the buyer, the seller serves as the bank or lender in this situation.Depending on what the buyer and seller agree upon, a seller carryback's structure may change. In most cases, a buyer will obtain a big bank or mortgage lender's 80% first mortgage, make a 10% down payment, and carryback the remaining 10% from the seller.When a seller assumes the role of a lender or bank and holds a second mortgage on the property in issue, the buyer is responsible for paying down the second mortgage on a monthly basis. This is known as seller carry back financing.

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Historical stories, legends, a journey, an accidents, etc are some subjects that can be related to _____ essays.

Answers

Historical stories, legends, a journey, an accidents, etc are some subjects that can be related to narrative essays.

What are narrative essays used for?

A narrative essay is a piece of writing that tells a story. Most of the time, this is a story about a personal experience. Unlike most academic writing, this type of essay, like the descriptive essay, allows you to be personal and creative.

Narrative essays assess your ability to express yourself creatively and compellingly while adhering to an appropriate narrative structure. They are frequently assigned in high school or in university composition classes. These techniques can also be used when writing a personal statement for an application.

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Which of the following is not a condition necessary to enable a monopolist to engage in price discrimination?
A. Must operate on the inelastic portion of the demand curve
B. Must be able to divide consumers into identifiable groups according to ability and willingness to pay
C. Must have some market power
D. Must be a price searcher rather than a price taker
E. Must be able to block the resale of the product

Answers

Must operate on the inelastic portion of the demand curve is not a condition necessary to enable a monopolist to engage in price discrimination .

Which of the following must exist in order for a monopolist to be able to differentiate prices?Price discrimination is conceivable in the situations listed below: The vendor must have some degree of control over the product's supply. It need monopolistic strength like this to differentiate prices. The market should be split into at least two submarkets by the seller (or more).Price discrimination is used by monopolists to seize the whole consumer surplus. The gap between what customers are prepared to pay and what they actually pay is known as the consumers' surplus (i.e. , the equilibrium market price).

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the primary measure of the economy's performance is its annual total output of goods and services, which is called its blank .
a. true
b. false

Answers

The statement above is false. It is because the primary measure of the economy's performance is aggregate output.

Aggregate Output generally can be defined as the total amount of output produced and supplied in the economy in a given period. Aggregate Income also can be described as the total amount of income received by all factors of production in an economy in a given period. Aggregate output  is equal to aggregate demand, which in turn is equal to consumer expenditure plus investment plus government spending plus net exports.

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Adidea Corp. has a year-end inventory of $85,000. However, the general ledger account shows a debit balance of $95,000 The company must change
the general ledger to reflect the actual inventory. Assuming the company uses a perpetual system, which adjusting worksheet entry does it need to use?

Answers

If Adidea Corp. has a year-end inventory of $85,000.  The appropriate adjusting  worksheet entry it need to use is A. a. Inventory (debit) 10,000 Cost of goods sold (credit) $10,000.

What is journal entry?

Journal entry is used by companies to record or post their day to day business transactions.

Now let prepare the journal entry

Adidea Corp. Journal entry

Debit  Inventory $10,000

Credit Cost of goods sold $10,000

($95,000 - $85,000)

Therefore we can conclude that the correct option is A.

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The complete question is:

Adidea Corp. has a year-end inventory of $85,000. However, the general ledger account shows a debit balance of $95,000. The company must change the general ledger to reflect the actual inventory. Assuming the company uses a perpetual system, which adjusting worksheet entry does it need to use?

a. Inventory (debit) 10,000 Cost of goods sold (credit) $10,000

b. Inventory change (debit) 10,000 Inventory (credit) $10,000

c. Cost if goods sold (debit) 10,000 Inventory change (credit) 10,000

d. Inventory (debit) 10,000 Inventory change (credit) 10,000

Given the following information, calculate the expected required rate of return. The most recent dividend was $2.00 and the estimated dividend at t=1 is $2.15. The price as of today is $50. Assume the stock is in equilibrium and exhibits constant growth. a. 10%
b. 8%
c. 11.5% d. 11.8% e. 12.5%

Answers

The expected required rate of return is 11.5%.

To calculate the expected required rate of return for a stock, you need to use the following formula:

Expected required rate of return = (Current dividend per share / Current stock price) + Dividend growth rate

Given the information provided, the current dividend per share is $2.00 and the current stock price is $50. The estimated dividend at t=1 is $2.15. Using this information, we can calculate the expected required rate of return as follows:

Expected required rate of return = ($2.00 / $50) + (($2.15 - $2.00) / $2.00)

Expected required rate of return = 0.04 + 0.075

Expected required rate of return = 0.115

Therefore, the expected required rate of return is approximately 11.5%. This means that an investor would expect to receive a rate of return of 11.5% on their investment in this stock, given the current dividend, expected dividend growth, and stock price.

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This type of international company structure include domestic divisions that are allowed to take global responsibility for product groups. these divisions operate as profit centers.

Answers

Global product divisions include domestic divisions that are allowed to take global responsibility for product groups. These divisions operate as profit centers.

By a product, what do you mean?

The thing being sold is called a "product." An item or service can be considered a product. Physical, virtual, or cyberspace forms are all possible. Every good has a price because it costs money to produce it. The market, quality, marketing, and intended market group all affect the price that can be paid.

The product is defined by who?

Regardless of their official position within the firm, whoever is ultimately in charge of defining the product holds the function of product manager or product strategist. As an illustration, the product visionary is often one or more of the co-founders of a firm in its early stages.

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Domestic divisions that are permitted to assume worldwide responsibility for product groupings are included in global product divisions. These divisions function as profit-making entities.

American firm Apple manufactures its goods in China. Apple goods are imported into India. Apple goods are international goods for India. There are also domestic goods that are made and sold in the same nation or territory. International product strategy: According to the global product category strategy, the corporation will take into account targeting various market segments and adjusting the product, advertising, and branding in accordance with local market demands. A corporation that pursues a worldwide product strategy has likely globalized its product lineup in the main. A local product can only be found in the country where it is produced; a global product caters to the demands of a worldwide market. In most regions of the world, a global brand has the same name, a comparable positioning, and a similar image.

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Tom is 36 years old and has never been married.
Frank, age 13, is Tom's nephew who lived with him all year. Tom provided all of his support
and provided over half the cost of keeping up the home.
Tom earned $44,000 in wages.
Tom is blind and cannot be claimed as a dependent by another taxpayer.
Tom and Frank are U.S. citizens, have valid Social Security numbers, and lived in the U.S. the
entire year.
2. Tom is blind and can claim a standard deduction amount of: A. $12,950 B. $19,400 C. $21,150 D. $25,900

Answers

Tom is blind and can claim a standard deduction amount of C. $21,150

Frank, age 13, is Tom's nephew who lived with him all year. Tom provided all of his support and covered over half the cost of keeping up the home. Tom earned $44,000 in wages and is blind and cannot be claimed as a dependent by another taxpayer.

Both Tom and Frank are U.S. citizens, have valid Social Security numbers, and lived in the U.S. the entire year. As a blind taxpayer, Tom can claim a standard deduction amount of  $21,150 for the year.

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Answer: C. $21,150

Explanation:

Question 5 of 85.
Which taxpayer(s) will be required to file a 2021 federal income tax return?

Answers

A dependent must make in order to submit a federal tax return. Requirements of dependents under 65 in 2021: Generated income with at least $12,550 or unearned a minimum of $1,100 (such as through assets or trusts).

Define the requirement for the federal income tax return of 2021?

The following factors determine whether you must submit a federal personal income tax return:

your status as a federal tax filer;your overall earnings;whether you are listed as someone else's dependent on their income tax return;whether you have an outstanding tax debt or obtained a specific credit.

Further details are-

Gross income, which includes any income from sources other than the United States or derived from the sale of your primary residence, is generally defined as any money, goods, property, as well as services that you received that are subject to tax.Regardless of age, you should file a return if they did not reside alongside your spouse just at end of 2021 and their gross income has been at least $5.

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Is my calculation wrong? what could be the correction if so?, my activity asked me to find the quantity demand for each price in each point, i am not sure and very confused with my calculation, the instruction told me to solve it by using the demand function "Qd= 80-2p" so when i used it for the given 80 pesos (the amount of price), the quantity demand ended up becoming 80 too. but i think it sounds off bc i was taught that in the law of demand, it states that when the price is high, the quantity demand lowers.

Answers

The quantity demanded based on the information will be 240 units.

What is Quantity demanded?

The quantity of a good or service that customers are willing and able to purchase at specific prices over a specific time period is known as demand. The amount of a good or service that will be purchased at a specific price at a specific time is known as the quantity demanded.

In economics, the term "quantity demanded" refers to the total amount of a good or service that consumers demand over a specific period of time. Regardless of whether a market is in equilibrium, it depends on the cost of a good or service.

The price, buyer income, the price of related goods, consumer tastes, and any consumer expectations of future supply and price all affect the quantity demanded (qD).

Since Qd is given as:

= 80 + 2p

= 80 + 2(80)

= 80 + 160

= 240

Note that your quantity demand equation was appropriately written.

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What is true about having exceptional credit?
A. A person makes a habit of paying for only exceptional service.
B. A person's FICO score is 800 or more.
C. A person's FICO score is 300.
D. A person uses cash mostly and credit as an exception.

Answers

The true about having exceptional credit is option B. A person's FICO score is 800 or more.

What is a FICO score?

A FICO score is a type of credit score that is used by lenders to help determine creditworthiness. It is a numerical score that ranges from 300 to 850, with higher scores indicating lower credit risk.

The score is based on information from a person's credit report, including payment history, credit utilization, length of credit history, and types of credit. Lenders often use a person's FICO score to help decide whether to approve a loan or credit application, and at what interest rate.

Therefore the correct answer is as given above

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Attributes of getta byte software

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The goal of the Getta Byte Software project is to substitute the present manual ticketing system with a cloud-based online system.  With a $250,000 budget, the primary objective is to develop a new system that is accurate, simple, and quick.

What is software?

Computer programs and the related documentation and data are collectively referred to as software. Hardware, on the other hand, is what the system is made of and what actually does the work.

Executable code, which is the most basic form of programming, is made up of machine language instructions that are supported by a single processor, most often a central processing unit (CPU) or a graphics processing unit (GPU).  Machine language is made up of collections of binary values that represent processor instructions that alter the previous state of the machine.

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Which of the following is a true statement regarding the taxation of interest and dividends on a fiduciary income tax return?
a. Only interest and dividends not treated ad distributed to the beneficiaries should be reported on page 1.
b. Interest and dividends received in the year of the decedent's death are reported in their entirety on the Form 1041 of the estate.
c. If a trust receives municipal bond interest, it must allocate administrative expenses between taxable and tax-exempt income.
d. Brokers are required to issue consolidated Form-1099 to trusts and estates by January 31 rather than the February 15 due date for individuals.

Answers

From the following, a true statement regarding the taxation of interest and the dividends on a fiduciary income tax return is that, if a trust receives municipal bond interest, then it must allocate the administrative expenses between the taxable and tax-exempt income.

Although the municipal bonds generally are not the subject to the federal taxes, the IRS still does include such income from these bonds in your modified adjusted gross income. Here, the dividends are on a fiduciary income tax return.

However, the income which is from investing in the municipal bonds is generally exempt from the Federal and the state taxes which is for the residents of the issuing state. Thus, one must also include that income on Schedule B (Form 1040).

Hence, option C is correct.

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OPTION C. is correct i.e.  If a trust receives municipal bond interest, it must allocate administrative expenses between taxable and tax-exempt income.

A municipal bond, generally known as a muni, is a bond issued by state or original governments, or realities they produce similar as authorities and special sections.

Although the municipal bonds generally are not the subject to the federal taxes, the IRS still does include such income from these bonds in your modified adjusted gross income. Here, the dividends are on a fiduciary income tax return.

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How has social media marketing evolved over the past few decades?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

1.   Social Media is Everywhere

2.   Social Networks Have Their Own Marketing Platforms

3.    Video is Now a Huge Part of Social Media

4.    Hashtags are Now Social Network Agnostic

5.    Social Media Ad Spending has Increased

Social media marketing has experienced significant changes over the past few decades.

Social media platforms emerged in the early 2000s, primarily as social networking sites. However, with the rise of platforms, social media became essential for marketing purposes.

Companies began to recognize the power of reaching and engaging with their audience directly through social media.

The introduction of business pages, sponsored posts, and targeted advertising allowed businesses to promote their products or services more effectively.

Additionally, the advent of influencer marketing transformed the landscape, influencing the reach and influence of social media personalities.

Thus, social media marketing has become an integral part of digital marketing strategies, providing opportunities for brand building, and sales.

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The sale of machinery at a loss that was used in a trade or business and held for more than one year
results in the following type of loss?
A. Capital.
B. §291.
C. §1231.
D. §1245.
E. None of these.

Answers

C. The sale of machinery at a loss that was used in a trade or business and held for more than one year results in §1231 (Section 1231) type of loss

Any loss that has been realised as a result of a sale, exchange, or conversion mentioned in subsection is referred to as a "section 1231 loss" (A). Apart from that section 1211 does not apply, section 1231 losses must only be included if and to the extent that they are taken into consideration in calculating taxable income. When a property is sold, a section 1231 gain is taxable at the reduced rate of taxation as opposed to the percent for ordinary income. That 1231 gain doesn't really apply if the sold asset was owned for less than a year.

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