<1 and <2 are complementary angles. the measure of <1 is 42°. The measure of <2 is 3x°. find the value of x.​

Answer:

D 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

;)

Answer:

the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

Please mark me brainliest. Something like that  

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=6x+4

y=6x+4

x=6y+4

6y=x-4

y=(x-4)/6

f^-1(x)=(x-4)/6

Answer is Option-C

How to find Inverse Function:

1. First, replace f(x) with y. This is done to make the rest of the process easier.

2. Replace every x with a y and replace every y with an x.

3. Solve the equation from Step 2 for y.

(Here), Given

f(x) = 6x + 4

Let's inverse function be y.

y = 6x + 4

First step is to switch the positions of x and y.

Inverse: x = 6y + 4

x - 4 = 6y

=> y = (1/6) * (x - 4)

Option-C

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Answer:

94

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the addition problem:

58 + 36

We can form a table :

5 _______ 8

+

3 _______ 6

9 4

Hence, (58 + 36) = 94

Answer:

Results are below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Principal (P)= $1,800

Number of periods (t)= 6 months

Monthly interest rate (r)= 0.144/12= 0.012

To calculate the interest to be paid and the total amount due, we need to use the following formula:

I= P*r*t

I= 1,800*6*0.012

I= $129.6

Total amount= $1,929.6

Answer:

9. 34            10.  8  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

13

Step-by-step explanation:

well if you add the first parts then undwe rate the next you will get 13

Answer:

26 seats in each row.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.67 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

This question can be interpreted as find the 11th term of a geometry progression where a = 6.25 and r = 80%

So, we have:

[tex]T_n = ar^{n-1}[/tex]

In this case:

[tex]r - 80\% = 0.8[/tex]

[tex]n = 11[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]T_{11} = 6.25 * 0.8^{11-1}[/tex]

[tex]T_{11} = 6.25 * 0.8^{10}[/tex]

[tex]T_{11} = 6.25 * 0.1073741824[/tex]

[tex]T_{11} = 0.67ft[/tex]

Hence, the height of rebound at the 11th time is approximately 0.67

Answer: 0.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6 because 9 is the length and you only do length times height and 54 divided by 9 is 6 therefore the height is 6

Answer:

6units

Step-by-step explanation:

A=bh

54units^2=9*h

h=54/9

h=6units

Step-by-step explanation:

90.50. as money if it is it would be $90.50

if as a number 9,050

Answer:

Real numbers

0≤ t ≤17

Answer:NOTEBOOK= 4

THUMB DRIVE=20

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of thumbdrive and notebook purchased are $20 and $4 respectively

Let :

Cost of Notebooks = n

Cost of Thumb drive = t

Troy :

Lisa :

Solving by elimination :

Multiply (1) by 2 and (2) by 4

Subtract (3) and (4)

From (1)

Hence, cost of notebook is $4 and cost of thumbdrive is $20

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Answer:

the answer is 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.9b+12=0.8b-9

0.9b+0.8b= -9-9

1.7b=-21

=-12.352

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

as - 10-6/10-(-6)

Equals - 16/16

Answer:

its a heartbeat.

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry for late answer, just answering for any future people.

Answer:

489.5 + m = 756.80 (the amount elias has, added to marks is equal to the total

(756.8- 489.5 = 267.30 which is the amount mark has.)

m= 267.3

the last option is the correct option

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: the answer is the last equation ($489.50 + m = $756.80; m = $267.30)

Step-by-step explanation:

I say this because all you have to do is subtract 756.80-489.50 to find out how much money Mark has. Thats how you get 267.30. Hope it helps

Answer: Your answer would be C) 32.1%

Step-by-step explanation:

With the number of successes needed to be 4 and the total amount of trials (games) for this to be achieved in being 6 you can calculate a percentage based on their currenting winning percentage of .623 (don't forget decimals can be percentages, just move the decimal point over) and you can input all of this into the binomial model equation to get your answer. Please do note also that it would be a different answer entirely if you were to use .500 (50%) as a winning percentage which would be the logical conclusion as any team has a 50/50 chance of winning a given game but instead the question is asking us to calculate this percentage off the already given winning percentage. After inputting the data into the model formula you can conclude the answer to be 32.1% chance of them winning 4 out of the next 6 games. I hope this has been of assistance to you :)

Have a wonderful rest of your day!

Answer:

160in²

Step-by-step explanation:

40% = 0.4 = 4/10

The length is 20, 40% of that is (0.4)(20) = 8in

Length * width . = 20*8 = 160in²

The width of the rectangle is equal to 8 feet.

The space occupied by any two-dimensional figure in a plane is called the area. The space occupied by the rectangle in a two-dimensional plane is called the area of the rectangle.

The percentage is defined as representing any number with respect to 100. It is denoted by the sign %. The percentage stands for "out of 100." Imagine any measurement or object being divided into 100 equal bits.

Given that the width of the rectangle is 40% of its length.

The width will be calculated as,

W = 0.4 x L

W = 0.4 x 20

W = 8 feet

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Answer:

ask can you drive it?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes it is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is correct because .75 time 3 is 2.25 and .75 times 4 is 3.00 and .75 times 6 equals 4.50 and .75 times 8 equals 6.00.

Answer:

50 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that one of the parent with a dominant trait have brown eyes and the other parent with a recessive trait has blue eyes. They produce a twin boy with eyes that is blue in color. So the probability of the fraternal twin to transmit his allele of blue eye to his or her offspring is 50 percent.

And also the probability of the offspring to pass the allele on to his or her offspring is 50 %.

The product rule is used : 0.5 x 0.5 = 0.25 or 25%.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 30 and 16. Cross out 0 and make it a 10 and 10-6= 4 then take 1 from 3 and make it a 2 and 2-1=1. It will all equal up to 14!

Answer:

8x+30+4x+18=180

12x+48=180

180-48=12x

132=12x

x=132/12

x=11

Answer:

-40×20

= -40/20

= -2

Step-by-step explanation: