Turn off the Significant Earthquakes layer and turn on the Significant Volcanic Eruptions layer. Observe the similarities between the locations of volcanoes and the plate boundaries.

More than half of the world’s volcanoes that are above sea level are located in the Ring of Fire. The Ring of Fire surrounds the Pacific plate, as shown on the map.

section of a world map highlighting the Ring of Fire

Zoom out as far as possible and locate the Ring of Fire on your map. Compare the location of the volcanoes in the Ring of Fire with the nearby plate boundaries. Using the plate boundaries legend, which type of boundary is most prevalent at the location of these volcanoes?

Answers

Answer 1

It is correct to state that "The Divergent/Transform Plate boundary" is the most common kind of barrier or boundary at these volcanoes called Ring of Fire. Please see the accompanying maps of the ring of fire.

What is a Transform Plate boundary?

A transform fault, also known as a transform boundary, is a fault along a plate boundary with mostly horizontal motion. It suddenly stops when it joins to another plate boundary, which might be another transform, a spreading ridge, or a subduction zone.

The Ring of Fire, also known as the Circum-Pacific Belt, is a track that circles the Pacific Ocean and is defined by active volcanoes and earthquakes. The Ring of Fire contains the majority of the Earth's volcanoes and earthquakes.

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Turn Off The Significant Earthquakes Layer And Turn On The Significant Volcanic Eruptions Layer. Observe
Turn Off The Significant Earthquakes Layer And Turn On The Significant Volcanic Eruptions Layer. Observe

Related Questions

Which is an abiotic factor?
O A) fungi and moss on a rotting log
O B) a forest of deciduous trees
O C) a polar bear on an ice floe
O D) an ocean current of cold water

Answers

Answer: Abiotic to me means Inanimate.

Explanation: D

The following map shows the location of states in relation to bodies of water. Refer to the map to answer the question. Map of the Midwest United States of America. From the top left, the state of North Dakota, South Dakota below it, Nebraska below that, and Kansas below Nebraska. From the top center, Minnesota, Iowa is below it, and Missouri is below Iowa. From the top right, Michigan, Wisconsin below it, and Illinois is below Wisconsin. Next to Illinois, below Lake Michigan, is Indiana. Next to Indiana, and below Lake Erie, is Ohio.. A water treatment plant in Iowa notices a sharp decrease in its groundwater resources. Which of the following is a probable reason for less groundwater for the area? Too much rain from hurricanes Northern winds from Kansas Less fracking drills Increased oil refining

Answers

Based on the information, it can be inferred that the decrease in the amount of groundwater in the state of Iowa is due to an increase in oil refining.

What is oil refining?

Petroleum refining is a term that refers to a transformation process in which petroleum is treated to produce other chemicals.

How does the increase in refinement influence the decrease in groundwater?

The relationship between the decrease in groundwater and the increase in oil refining occurs because to refine more oil, more must be extracted. Therefore, the water resource may decrease because to extract more oil, techniques such as fraking are used, which require a high amount of water.

In accordance with the above, the extraction and refining of a greater amount of oil causes the need for more water that is extracted from underground sources for these chemical processes.

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What will be the effect of excessive increase in number of frog in pond ecosystem.

Answers

The effect of excessive increase in number of frog in pond ecosystem is that a large portion of the creatures that consume frogs will disappear, which will cause the numbers of the species that eat them to collapse as well.

'What is ecosystem?'

An ecosystem is a region where a bubble of life is created by plants, animals, and other organisms interacting with the weather, environment, and other factors. Abiotic variables, or nonliving components, coexist with biotic components in ecosystems. Plants, animals, and other species are biotic factors. Along with rocks, temperature and humidity are abiotic variables.

Every component of an ecosystem is directly or indirectly dependent upon every other component. An ecosystem's temperature changes frequently have an impact on the types of plants that may flourish there, for example.

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By eating the bothersome insects that might not only be annoying but also harm the pond ecosystem and the rest of your property, frogs contribute to the environment and ecosystem of your pond. Frogs are excellent at performing this task, but they also use ponds as breeding grounds and, as already said, can proliferate in large numbers.

First and foremost, we must comprehend that ecosystems always support life. If the equilibrium between predators and prey is upset, as it is in this case, the ecology will gain more frog predators, which will counteract the decline in flies. Then, when there are enough frog predators to drastically limit the number of frogs, the predators are forced to move on to another pond.

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How do you prevent pests naturally?

Answers

Microorganisms like bacteria, fungus, and viruses have an impact on diverse crop sections in a variety of ways. Through the use of insecticides and biocontrol agents, crops could be shielded from these diseases.

Pests and insects together account for the majority of crop damage and production reduction. They might destroy the entire harvest and consume the substantial amount of grains. In fact, if they are not controlled, they can lower crop productivity by 30 to 50 percent each year. Integrated pest and insect management is the greatest strategy for preventing crop damage. By keeping insects and other pests under control, spraying insecticides and pesticides helps to reduce crop loss.

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Why are X rays more potent mutagens than UV radiation?

Answers

X rays are of higher energy and shorter wavelength than UV light. They have greater penetrating ability and can create more disruption of DNA.

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation has wavelengths ranging from 10 nm[1] (corresponding frequency roughly 30 PHz) to 400 nm (750 THz), which is shorter than visible light but longer than X-rays. UV radiation is found in sunshine and accounts for around 10% of the Sun's total electromagnetic radiation output. Electric arcs, Cherenkov radiation, and specialty lights such as mercury-vapor lamps, tanning lamps, and black lights can also create it.

Although long-wavelength UV is not considered ionizing radiation because its photons do not have enough energy to ionize atoms, it may initiate chemical reactions and causes many things to light or fluoresce.

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Peripheral resistance depends on all of the following factors except __________.a. blood vessel lengthb. blood viscosityc. blood vessel diameterd. blood colloid osmotic pressure

Answers

Peripheral resistance depends on all of the following factors except blood colloid osmotic pressure. Here option D is the correct answer.

Peripheral resistance is the resistance to blood flow in the blood vessels and is determined by the properties of the blood vessels and the blood flowing through them. The factors that affect peripheral resistance include Blood vessel length, Blood viscosity, Blood vessel diameter, and Blood colloid osmotic pressure.

The pressure exerted by plasma proteins on the walls of blood vessels, this pressure is not directly related to peripheral resistance but helps to maintain the blood pressure and keep the fluid in the blood vessels.

In general, peripheral resistance is determined by the properties of the blood vessels and blood, and the factors that affect it are those that change the diameter of the blood vessels or the viscosity of the blood. When blood vessels constrict or blood becomes thicker, resistance to blood flow increases. When blood vessels dilate or blood becomes thinner, resistance to blood flow decreases.

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Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood pH below pH 7.35. What effect will this condition have in the urine

Answers

The effect of metabolic acidosis would be that the pH of urine would decrease.

Renal disease or kidney failure can lead to metabolic acidosis, which is the buildup of acid in the body. The inability to excrete enough acid, produce too much acid, or maintain a proper acid-base balance can all lead to an excess of acid in the body's fluids. There are many functions performed by the kidneys.

Maintaining a healthy pH level is an important part of this job. The kidneys are responsible for doing this by flushing excess acid from the body via urine. Metabolic acidosis is caused by an imbalance of blood acids. It occurs when the kidneys are unable to remove excess acid from the body.

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Watery perspiration is an example of a(n) ____ secretion.... merocrine apocrine mucous holocrine serous

Answers

Answer:

apocrine

Explanation:

im cool. Brainliest?

How does cardiorespiratory endurance improve body composition?

Answers

Longer periods of sustained physical activity may be achieved by improving cardiorespiratory endurance, which enhances oxygen uptake in the heart and lungs.

Cardiovascular endurance is your body's capacity to keep up with exercise such as running, jogging, swimming, cycling, and anything else that requires your cardiovascular system (lungs, heart, and blood vessels) to function for a prolonged amount of time.

Cardiorespiratory fitness, cardiovascular endurance, and other terms are other terms for cardiorespiratory endurance. Cardiorespiratory endurance gauges the body's ability to function over an extended period of exercise. A person with a high level of cardiorespiratory endurance can perform high-intensity activities for an extended period of time without becoming exhausted.

Analyzing how effectively a person's body absorbs and uses oxygen is a key component in determining their cardiorespiratory endurance.

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the beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provide long-lasting protection.
A. antibodies
B. plasma cells
C. T helper cells
D. memory cells
E. phagocytotic cells

Answers

IMMUNOLOGY

The beauty of specific immunity is the production of D. memory cells that provide long-lasting protection.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of viruses?

a They are visible with a light microscope.

b They are acellular.

c They are composed of genetic material and protein.

d They are smaller than prokaryotic cells.

e They are obligatory parasites.

Which of the following statements about algae is false?
a The group includes seaweeds and kelps.
b They are photosynthetic organisms.
c They provide most of the oxygen on earth.
d They are important in the degradation of dead plants and animals.
e They are a source of food for aquatic and marine animals.

ATP is expended in which of the following processes?
a Facilitated diffusion
b Diffusion
c Group translocation
d Active transport
e Both active transport and group translocation

Answers

They are visible with a light microscope. They are a food source for aquatic and marine animals. This is not a symptom of a virus. Here options A and E both are correct.

Algae are photosynthetic organisms, meaning they produce their food through photosynthesis, so statement e is false.

ATP is consumed in both active transport and group translocation. Active transport requires the expenditure of energy to move molecules against a concentration gradient, while group translocation is a type of active transport that uses proteins to move many molecules simultaneously.

Viruses are acellular, meaning they do not have a cellular structure and are not considered living organisms. They are composed of genetic material, either DNA or RNA, and protein. They are much smaller than prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, typically ranging in size from 20-300 nanometers. Viruses are obligate parasites, meaning they cannot replicate or carry out metabolism without infecting a host cell.

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CO
13. According to Model 2, what structure holds the two sister chromatids
together as they prepare for cell division?
O Centromere
Chromatid
Chromatin
Ch

Answers

The structure that holds the two sister chromatids together as they prepare for cell division is the centromere.

What exactly happens during cell division?

The notion referenced in this question is cell division, more especially the mitotic division process. A type of cell division known as mitosis entails the condensation of a cell's DNA into two sister chromatids that are connected by the centromere.

The two sister chromatids are subsequently pulled apart and into the two daughter cells as a result of the centromere splitting. Each daughter cell will obtain the whole set of genetic information thanks to this procedure.

A cell divides into two daughter cells through a process known as cell division.

2. The cell must copy its DNA and compact it into two sister chromatids before it may divide.

3. A structure known as the centromere holds the sister chromatids together.

4. The centromere is a unique area of the chromosomes that houses DNA and proteins.

5. The centromere contributes to the stability of the two sister chromatids during cell division.

6. The centromere divides during mitosis, and the two sister chromatids are separated and inserted into the two daughter cells.

This makes it possible for each daughter cell to receive all of the genetic information.

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True/ False: Most cells within one organism have the same genome (same genes with the same alleles).

Answers

Most cells within one organism have the same genome (same genes with the same alleles) is true statement.

Almost all of a person's body's cells have the same DNA and genes. Different genes are expressed during cell division and growth, resulting in various cell types. The majority of our chemistry is produced by a range of proteins that are produced by those cells and are unique to the cells they form. All cell-based life on earth generally shares the same characteristics.

The genome is made up of all the DNA instructions that are present in a cell. One small chromosome that is found in the mitochondria and 23 pairs of chromosomes that are present in the cell's nucleus make up the human genome. The genome of an individual contains all the information needed for growth and maintenance.

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True statement: Most cells in a single organism share the same genome (same genes with the same alleles).

The total collection of DNA instructions present in a cell makes up the genome. The human genome is made up of 23 pairs of chromosomes that are found in the cell's nucleus and one tiny chromosome that is found in the mitochondria. Everything a person needs to grow and operate is encoded in their genome. One organism's cells largely share the same genome (same genes with the same alleles). Because cell differentiation often only involves epigenetic changes, the aforementioned statement is true for the majority of cells, but not all.

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A grain product that retains its original content of nutrients and fiber is a(n) ____.

a. enriched grain product
b. refined grain food
c. whole-grain food
d. fortified grain product
e. processed food product

Answers

I believe the answer is

C) Whole grain food

the vagus nerve is to ____ as the splanchnic nerves are to ____.

Answers

The vagus nerve is to stomach fullness; as the splanchnic nerves are tonutrient contents of the stomach.

Where can I find the splanchnic nerves?

The medial branches of the 5th to 9th thoracic sympathetic ganglia create each greater splanchnic nerve. It runs along the spine's front surface and branches into the descending aorta. The nerve then travels through the fibres of the diaphragm's ipsilateral crus to enter the abdomen.

What exactly are the vagus and splanchnic nerves?

The vagal, splanchnic, and pelvic nerves are the three primary gastrointestinal neural routes entering the central nervous system. Vagal afferent fibres have neuronal cell bodies in the nodose and jugular ganglia and are commonly related with fullness and nausea.

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A weed that exhibits resistance to an herbicide ________.
A. Mutated when exposed to the herbicide
B. Inherited the gene that made it resistant to the herbicide
C. Developed the resistance in response to the herbicide
D. Is less likely to pass on the gene to the next generation
E. Can only pass on the gene to generations exposed to the herbicide

Answers

Weeds showing resistance to herbicides D. It is unlikely that the gene will be passed on to the next generation

What is a weed?

Weeds are plants that grow around cultivated plants and their presence is unwanted. Therefore weeds are plants that must be controlled because they cause direct or indirect losses.

Herbicides are chemicals used to control weeds. Herbicides are widely used because they have a high level of effectiveness in controlling weeds. Herbicides can affect plant growth so it is less likely for weeds to show resistance to herbicides.  The effect varies greatly depending on the type of weed controlled.

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Viruses are most closely related, in that they share a common ancestor, to which domain of life?
a. bacteria
b. Viruses are not considered to be part of the tree of life.
c. archaea

Answers

Viruses are not considered to be part of the tree of life (b).

A length or elongation of nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA), encased inside a protein layer/coat, makes up a virus or an infectious bacterium. Since viruses are unable to multiply on their own, they must infect host cells in order to utilize those cells' components as building blocks for their own replication.

A virus frequently ends up destroying the host cell as a result, harming the host organism. AIDS, COVID-19, measles, and smallpox are popular examples of viruses that harm people.

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Name: Period Assessing Elephant Populations: Using geographic dato At the right, you see two maps of the Tsavo region in Kenya. The top includes dots that show where different elephant herds live and the bottom shows the geography without those populations represented Answer the following questions regarding this new data 1) On the top map, circle where elephants are most densely populated. 2) Based on the geographic features on the map belaw, why do you think the population density is higher in most of the area you circled? 3) Is the feature you described a biotic or an abiotic feature? Evet arthet gs Based on the data in the maps, what patterns do you notice when observing the hot spots for the 4) Tsavo elephant herds? 5) Previously you listed limiting factors that affect elephant populations. List them here and label each as biotic or abiotic Type Limiting factor Type Limiting factor: Type Limiting factor: Limiting factor: Type: Limiting factor: Type: s dots that show where hose populations ink the population density is Fehare observing the hot spots for the ns. List them here and label

Answers

List the region or countries on the map that are home to the majority of African elephants. Botswana and South Sudan both have a great deal.

What separates biotic conditions from abiotic ones?

Introduction The non-living, biochemical, and physical elements of the environment known as abiotic components have an effect on organisms in biological and ecological terms. Biotic refers to the living components of an ecosystem, such as species of plants and animals. Examples include water, dirt, minerals, and humidity.

List a biotic illustration ?

A biotic factor is a living creature that modifies its environment. Algae, fish, reptiles, and native organisms are some examples of organisms that can be found in freshwater habitats. The interplay of both biotic and abiotic elements leads to the formation of a specific ecosystem.

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O True O False DNP will cause the ATP synthase to spin uncontrolled

Answers

The ATP synthase will spin erratically in response to DNP. This statement is false.

DNP (2,4-dinitrophenol) is a chemical that can increase the rate of cellular respiration by uncoupling the process of oxidative phosphorylation. It does this by allowing protons to leak back into the mitochondrial matrix without being used to generate ATP.

This causes the energy from the electron transport chain to be dissipated as heat, rather than being used to produce ATP. DNP does not cause the ATP synthase to spin uncontrolled, it rather decreases the amount of ATP produced by the cells.

DNP is not used clinically, because it is highly toxic and can cause side effects such as fever, tachycardia, and even death.

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A fourth allele that contributes to coat color in rabbits is chinchilla, which can be represented as Cch. This allele is recessive to the wild-type allele but dominant to the alleles for Himalayan and albino colors. What would be the possible genotypes of a chinchilla rabbit

Answers

Rabbits' coat color is determined by a gene with four alleles that compose a multiple allelic series. The possible gentoypes of chinchilla rabbits are 1) Cch Cch, 2) Cch ch, 3) Cch c.

What is a multiple allelic series?

When talking about allelic series, we refer to the alleles involved in trait determination. These alleles interact, and according to their dominance pattern, they express a certain phenotype.

A multiple allelic series usually refers to a gene with more than two alleles involved in the feature determination. One of these alleles is the most dominant one, another allele is recessive to all the other alleles, and intermediate alleles are dominant over some of them and recessive to others.

The four alleles involved in rabbits' coat color are part of a multiple allelic series.

To answer the following question, we should know that Rabbits' coat color is coded by a gene with four alleles,

C codes for agouti and is dominant over all the other alleles, cch codes for chinchilla and is recessive to C but dominant over the other two alleles, ch codes for Himalayan, is recessive to C and ccH, but dominnat over cc codes for albino, and is the most recessive one.

So, the allelic series is C > Cch > ch > c

The possible genotypes of a chinchilla rabbit are,

Cch Cch ⇒ homozygousCch ch ⇒ heterozygousCch c ⇒ heteroygous

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If part of the dna gene being transcribed is tgcaat, what will the mrna code be for that part?

Answers

Answer: ACGUUA

Explanation: I Looked It Up For Y'all. You're Welcome

In the simplest definition, proteins are a gene product, so when a gene mutates, it directly affects protein synthesis. Think about what cell processes and genes are absolutely necessary for cell/organismal survival and explain why the genes responsible for forming meiotic spindle fibers may be more among different species than genes for body hair.

Answers

The genes responsible for forming meiotic spindle fibers may be more among different species than genes for body hair because meiosis is fairly related in different species to be specific and thus form balanced gametes that will combine during fecundation.

What is the cell process of meiosis?

The cell process of meiosis is a division of a parental cell to produce gametes that are specific from the species and they only will combine with another gamete from the same species to generate a new individual.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that meiosis is highly specific and it is reflected by the genes expressed.

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What is the importance of the superficial to deep rule as it applies to dissection of the fetal pig?

Answers

Scalpel, forceps, probe, scissors  is the importance of the superficial to deep rule as it applies to dissection of the fetal pig.

What is dissection in medical terms?

To cut or divide tissues is to dissect. During surgery, physicians dissect the tissue. This surgery often done to eliminate a bodily portion that is deemed to be unhealthy. Pathologists examine corpses after death. This is a step in the autopsy process to ascertain the manner of death. the act of chopping or separating tissue, as can be done during a medical operation or when studying anatomy, for example.

Is a dissection a stroke?

The blood vessel's inner lining rips during a carotid artery dissection. Blood might clot at the location of the rip. An ischemic stroke can occur if the blood clot escapes, travels to your brain, blocks up blood arteries, and restricts blood flow.

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The ion imbalance known as __________ initially leads to __________ in excitable cells.
A. hypokalemia; depolarization
B. hyperkalemia; hyperpolarization
C. hyperkalemia; depolarization
D. hypokalemia; repolarization
C. hyperkalemia; depolarization

Answers

The ion imbalance is known as (E) hyperkalemia which initially leads to depolarization in excitable cells.

The term "hyperkalemia" refers to a serum or plasma potassium level that is higher than the top limits of normal, often between 5.0 and 5.5 mEq/L. Although moderate hyperkalemia is typically asymptomatic, excessive potassium levels can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, muscular weakness, or paralysis.

Patients with chronic hyperkalemia may not exhibit any symptoms at higher potassium levels, but those who have abrupt, acute potassium changes may do so at lower levels. Children and adults have lower baseline levels than infants do. Falsely elevated potassium levels detected as a result of improper specimen handling, collection, or other factors are known as pseudohyperkalemia, which is fairly prevalent.

In situations where the blood potassium level is raised without cause, hyperkalemia should always be established before severe therapy.

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The phases of the Cell Cycle starting at the beginning of Interphase is
.
The beginning of the Cell Cycle Interphase____
. The next phase in Interphase is____
. The next phase in Interphase is____
.
. The second phase of mitosis is____
The next phase is the beginning of mitosis___
. The third phase of mitosis is___
.
.
The fourth and last phase of mitosis is____
After mitosis, the cell duplicates its cytoplasm in_____

Answers

Interphase is composed of G1 phase (cell growth), followed by S phase (DNA synthesis), followed by G2 phase (cell growth). At the end of interphase comes the mitotic phase, which is made up of mitosis and cytokinesis and leads to the formation of two daughter cells.

Amount of daylight each day varies
with the time of the year.
Identify the dependent variable.

Answers

The independent variable is time of the year as daylight is the dependent variable. So, the correct option is (B).

What is Dependent variable?

A dependent variable is defined as what we measure in the experiment and what is affected during the experiment. The dependent variable also reacts to the independent variable called the dependent because it "depends on" the independent variable.

A dependent variable depends on an independent variable but an independent variable depends on external manipulation. For the above given information, daylight is dependent variable while time of the year is independent.

Thus, the independent variable is time of the year as daylight is the dependent variable. So, the correct option is (B).

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is :

Amount of daylight each day varies with the time of the year. Identify the independent variable.

1. Daylight

2. Time of the year

Alveoli are structures in the respiratory system that allow gas exchange with the circulatory system. Which type of blood vessel would be most effective in this function? (2 points)
Veins, because they contain only a tunica externa
O Arteries, because they contain only a tunica externa
Arterioles, because they contain only a tunica intima
O Capillaries, because they contain only a tunica intima

Answers

The type of blood vessel that would be effective in the function of gas exchange in alveoli in the circulatory system is capillaries because they contain only tunica intima.

What are alveoli?

The bronchioles are tiny branches that branch off the bronchi. The alveoli, a collection of hundreds of tiny bubble-like structures, are connected to each bronchiole by a tiny duct called the alveolar duct. The Latin term is "small cavity" from which the name "alveolus" originates.

What is the circulatory system?

A human or other vertebrate's complete body is circulated by a system of organs called the blood circulatory system, which includes the heart, blood arteries, and blood itself. It contains the heart and blood vessels-based cardiovascular system, often known as the vascular system.

What are blood vessels?

Your body's blood travels through blood arteries, which act as conduits. They create a circuit-like closed loop that starts and finishes at your heart. Your circulatory system is made up of blood vessels and heart vessels.

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Does meiosis 1 have 46 chromosomes?

Answers

A human cell has 46 chromosomes, or 92 chromatids, at the start of meiosis I. (the same number as during mitosis).

Meiosis division has 2 phases Meiosis 1 and Meiosis 2. During Meiosis I the  homologous chromosomes(46) are present in the cell. The cell gets split by the end of meiosis I by dividing homologous chromosomes( tetrads) and also undergoes crossing over and recombination to form two haploid cells with 23 chromosomes. Meiosis I has the following stages Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase.

The Prophase I of Meiosis has 5 stages Leptotene, Zygotene, pachytene, Diplotene and dyskinesis. The division of homologous chromosomes takes place during the Pachytene stage of meiosis.

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organ physiology is to ________ as gross anatomy is to ________.
a. function; form
b. form; structure
c. structure; function
d. structure; form
e. growth; form

Answers

Organ physiology is to structure as gross anatomy is to function, which means option c is the correct choice.

Anatomy is to shape as body structure is to feature. Anatomy is involved with the shape and vicinity of organs and tissues relative to at least one another, while body structure research the feature of these systems. Because shape and feature are so carefully related, they may be regularly studied collectively. anatomy is ready shape, body structure is ready feature. Human body structure is the medical have a look at of the chemistry and physics of the systems of the frame and the approaches wherein they paintings collectively to help the capabilities of life.

Thus, option c is the correct choice.

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what is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In prokaryotes, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.

Answers

Rho Factor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription in prokaryotes by binding to the DNA in or near the promoter.

The Role of Rho Factor in Inhibiting Gene Expression in Prokaryotes

Rho Factor is a protein that plays an important role in gene regulation in prokaryotes. It binds to the DNA in or near the promoter region, and this binding inhibits transcription by blocking the formation of the transcription initiation complex. This means that the transcription process cannot begin, and the gene will not be expressed.

Rho Factor is also involved in the termination of transcription, as it binds to the RNA polymerase and causes it to release the transcript. This means that the full length transcript will not be formed, and the gene will not be expressed. Thus, Rho Factor is an important regulator of gene expression in prokaryotes, as it can both inhibit and terminate transcription.

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What is the tone of a formal essay? What does it mean if an object sinks to the bottom of the cylinder? Martin is looking at his closing statement. Which of the following items is he likely to see?Seller net sheet, if he's a sellerTitle liensDebitsListing price What is the molecular geometry of SeCl2 The volume of a cylinder is given by the formula v=nr^2h where is r is the radius of the cylinder and h is the height The energy gap for silicon at 300 k is 1. 14 ev. The lowest-frequency photon that can promote an electron from the valence band to the conduction band will be. What Spanish-speaking country would you like to visit? What language do the people speak? What language do the people speak? Why would you like to visit this country? Include at least two reasons to visit the Spanish-speaking country. Answer in Spanish Find the rational number which when multiplied with -9/13 gives the product 45. What is the meaning of long drawn process? A system consists of two particles. At t = 0 one particle is at the origin; the other, which has a mass of 0. 50 kg, is on the y-axis at y = 6. 0 m. At t = 0 the center of mass of the system is on the y-axis at y = 2. 4 m. The velocity of the center of mass is given by (0. 75 m/s3) t2i^. What is the summary for chapter 2 of the boy in the stripped pijamas? during design and implementation, a development team will be heavy with ________.A) business analystsB) business usersC) programmersD) senior managers 3. Identify a transition moment you could use to implement a new savings plan. What is data or other facts gathered to test an idea? An atom transits from a site to a nearest-neighbor site every seconds. The probabilities of transiting to the right and left are p and q = 1-p respectively. -X (a) Calculate the average position of the atom at the time t = Nr, where N > 1; (b) Calculate the mean square value (z-7) at the time t. Compared to traditional advertising, an effective business use of social media tools is to _____.a.promote productsb.engage customersc.broadcast informationd.focus on the company's interests Which is the wrong one highlighted ? which of the following reasons explains why it is difficult to use programmed decision making processes in the work you do? A.the decisions you make are constantly changing with imperfect information available B.the decisions you make have well-structured decision parameters C.the decisions you make are repetitive and routine D.the decision solutions have clearly defined rules and set procedures What is an organism or cell having only one complete set of chromosomes called? Why accrued income is debited?