Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a​ 2-month-old child?
A.
16​ breaths/min
B.
32​ breaths/min
C.
28​ breaths/min
D.
40​ breaths/min

Answers

Answer 1

A 2-month-old child's respiratory rate approximately 16 breaths per minute considered alarming.

What is the average respiratory rate?

Fever, sickness, and other medical problems can all cause an increase in respiration rates. It's vital to take into account a person's breathing difficulties when assessing respiration. Adults typically breathe between 12 and 16 times per minute while at rest.

What raises the respiratory rate?

Anxiety, fever, respiratory illnesses, heart conditions, and dehydration are among the most typical reasons of a fast breathing rate. Overdoses of prescription medications, obstructive sleeping apnea, including head injuries are likely explanations of decreased respiratory rates. A person should see a doctor if their breathing pattern seems unusual.

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Related Questions

which herbal supplements pose an increased risk for bleeding in surgical clients and should be discontinued prior to major surgery

Answers

Herbal supplements known or suspected to increase the risk of bleeding include:

ginkgo biloba

garlic

carrot

Ginger

garlic: To lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels, garlic supplements may increase the risk of bleeding.

ginkgo: This herb is used to improve memory, but may increase the risk of bleeding.

Ginseng is used to boost energy and may increase the risk of bleeding.

Herbal supplements can cause problems during surgery, including: B. Response to anesthesia used for pain management.

In addition to the potential problems with surgery listed below, many herbal supplements can interact with commonly prescribed medications.This includes medications used for anesthesia. potential interactions may not be obvious to you.

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After damage to the ventral roots of the spinal cord, an individual will suffer which kind of loss?A. Sensation of the muscles on the opposite side of the bodyB. Control of the peripheral muscles in the affected bodyC. Sensation from the affected body areaD. Control of organs in the affected body area

Answers

Paralysis occurs when the ventral roots or ventral horns are injured.

The location of the damage affects the symptoms of spinal cord injuries. The feeling might be impacted if the sensory tracts are damaged. Paralysis develops when the ventral roots and ventral horns are injured. When nerve signals do not reach the targeted muscles, this is known as flaccid paralysis. Muscles cannot contract in the absence of stimulus. Spastic paralysis occurs when motor neurons get erratic activation, resulting in involuntary contraction.

When the spinal cord is severed between T1 and L1, paralysis of a lower limbs develops. Quadriplegia, or paralysis of all limbs, is caused by a cervical spine injury. Flaccid paralysis is a neurological illness characterized by weakness or paralysis and decreased muscle tone for no apparent reason. This aberrant situation can be caused by illness or damage to the nerves that control the implicated muscles.

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A nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerin 50 mcg/min by continuous IV infusion. Available is nitroglycerin in 25 mg dextrose 5% water (D5W). The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many ml/hr

Answers

A nurse is preparing an IV infusion of 50 mcg/min nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is available as 25 mg of dextrose in 5% water (D5W). Hence, the IV pump should be adjusted to 30 ml/hr by the nurse.

We are given this information:

Nitroglycerin IV infusion = 50 mcg/min.Nitroglycerin available = 25 mg in 250 mL.

Hence, the IV pump should be adjusted to 30 ml/hr by the nurse. The following are the steps to obtain the number: 

50 / 1000 x 60 = 3 mg / hrX mL/hr = 3 / 25 x 250X = 30 mL/hr

As calculated above, the IV pump should be adjusted by the nurse to 30 ml/hr.

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What is the most common cause of sports injuries?

Answers

When people get involved in sports, initially they are not fully aware of the proper movement techniques. Practicing sports without proper guidance results in imbalance and this is the most common cause of sports injuries. Proper professional training should be done before practicing sports.  

Among the common causes of sports injuries are overtraining without sufficient nutrition, childhood trauma or injuries that have not fully healed, and weak muscles and bones caused by developmental abnormalities. Sports-related training can be quite taxing and add to the stress on the muscles, bones, and ligaments. Joint pain, fractures, and swelling are always possible if the movements are not synchronized. Additionally, the body needs a suitable balance of nutrients to repair the weakened and exhausted muscles, and overworking while ingesting less food might raise the risk of musculoskeletal injuries.

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The following are risk factors for sports injuries: Poor workout form. overtraining, which can be defined as exercising too much, too frequently, or for too long. Too fast adjusting the level of physical activity.

What causes sports injuries?

Trauma or overuse of muscles or joints are the two main causes of sports injuries. Most are brought on by small injuries to the muscles, tendons, ligaments, or bones, such as: Sprains and contusions (bruises).

What are typical sports injuries?

Bruises, sprains, strains, joint injuries, and nosebleeds are examples of common injuries. Medical examination is crucial since the effects of not treating an injury might be far more serious.

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Which instruction regarding swimming should the nurse give to the client who is recovering from otitis externa

Answers

The instructions are: When taking a shower, shampooing, or taking a bath, keep your ears dry and clean and don't let water get in them. After your ear has become moist, thoroughly dry it.

What are the top 5 nursing care priorities?

Identifying someone who is dying, sensitively talking with them and their family, involving them in decision-making, supporting them and their family, and developing a personalized care plan that includes enough nourishment and hydration are the five objectives.

Can ear wax damage your hearing?

Earwax is a natural chemical produced by the human body. It has lubricating and antimicrobial qualities in it. Untreated buildup can cause ringing in the ears, hearing loss, discomfort, pain in the ear, and dizziness.

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The client who is recovering from otitis externa should always dry off their ears (apart from the drops). When you have otitis externa, it is recommended to avoid swimming and getting water in your ears. So, the person should avoid swimming for seven to ten days.

Keep your ears dry, clean, and free of water while taking a shower, shampooing, or a bath, according to the guidelines. Dry your ear completely after it has become wet.

Complete question: Which instruction regarding swimming should the nurse give to the client who is recovering from otitis externa?

A. Wear a scarf.

B. Stay out of the cold water.

C. Stop swimming for seven to ten days. 

D. Also, place a loose cotton pledget in the external ear.

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A client is administered succinylcholine and propofol for induction of anesthesia. One hour after administration, the client demonstrates muscle rigidity with a heart rate of 180. What should the nurse do first

Answers

The surgery team should be notified first by the nurse if the patient who receives succinylcholine plus propofol for the induction of anesthesia has muscle rigidity and a heart rate of 180 one hour after administration.

Succinylcholine, a depolarizing muscle relaxant, can cause a phenomenon called malignant hyperthermia, which is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition characterized by muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and metabolic acidosis. The heart rate of 180 may be a sign of these metabolic derangements caused by malignant hyperthermia. It is important that the surgical team is aware of the situation as soon as possible, so that they can take appropriate action.

It's also important for the nurse to document the observations and notify the physician as soon as possible, so be able to act fast if any complication occurs.

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you are performing two-rescuer cpr on a child. the rescuer who has been ventilating the child informs you tat the patient is now breathing adequately. what should you do next

Answers

You should stop compressions and place the child in the recovery position.

Often, there will be a second person present to assist as a saviour. The ILCOR highlights that cell phones are now widely available and that the majority of them feature a built-in speakerphone. While you begin CPR, instruct the second rescuer to phone 911 and Emergency Medical Services (EMS). While you remain with the individual, the second rescuer can look for an AED.

To avoid the spread of blood-borne diseases, rescuers will take conventional procedures while giving treatment to casualties (BBP). Personal protective equipment, washing hands, and engineering & work practice controls are examples of precautions. These methods are intended to break the transmission chain. The first responder cycles through 30 compressions & 2 breaths. When the second rescuer arrives, perform 15 compressions and 2 breaths. As soon as AED is available, use it.

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When the child is in the recovery position, you should stop applying compressions.(CPR)

A second person will frequently be there to act as a savior and help. The ILCOR emphasizes that cell phones are now readily accessible and that the majority of them have a built-in speakerphone. As you start CPR, tell the second rescuer to call 911 and Emergency Medical Services (EMS). The second responder may search for an AED while you stay with the victim.

In order to prevent the spread of blood-borne infections, rescuers will follow traditional procedures when providing treatment to victims (BBP). One example of a precaution is wearing personal protective equipment and washing your hands before eating. By using these techniques, the transmission chain is meant to be broken.

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What are the top 10 most common injuries in sports?

Answers

The most common injuries in sports include Sprains, Strains, Fractures, Overuse injuries, Hip Flexor Strain etc.

What are the most common injuries in sports?

Sprains: A sprain is a ligament injury that happens when a joint or a bone that forms a joint is subjected to a rapid stress. A slight sprain happens when a ligament is stretched, whereas a significant sprain happens when a ligament is entirely burst or ripped. Sprains are highly prevalent in the ankle, knee, elbow, shoulder, and thumb ligaments.

Strains: A strain, often known as a "pulled" muscle, is a muscular tear that is frequently produced by abrupt stretching or severe contraction, generally while changing speed or direction. A small strain involves only a few ripped or damaged muscle fibers, whereas a severe strain involves total muscular rupture.

Fractures are shattered bones that are frequently caused by a severe event, such as a fall or collision. A fracture is typically simple to spot since the symptoms are acute and painful.

Overuse injuries are caused by repetitive stress on your tendons, bones, and joints and can be caused by overtraining, strength and flexibility imbalances, poor body alignment, and inappropriate technique.

Hip Flexor Strain: Hip flexors are muscles located on the upper front side of the thigh. The hip flexor muscles' primary responsibilities are to elevate the knee toward your torso and to help in moving your leg toward and away from the opposite leg.

ACL Tear or Strain: The anterior cruciate ligament, or ACL, is one of the primary knee stabilizing ligaments. Slowing down and attempting to cut, pivot, or change directions is the most prevalent cause of ACL strains in sports. The ACL injury frequently tears ligaments on the interior of the knee, making it a traumatic occurrence.

A groin pull is also known as a groin strain. The groin muscles connect the upper inner thigh to the inner thigh above the knee. Groin muscles connect the legs and are frequently damaged by fast side-to-side motions and/or a lack of flexibility. The injured athlete may experience trouble with lateral movements, getting in and out of vehicles soreness.

Shin Splints: Athletes suffering from shin splints experience discomfort in the lower leg bone, or the tibia. Shin splints are especially common among runners or athletes who participate in activities that require a lot of running, such as soccer. Athletes usually acquire shin splints early in the season because they increase their activities or distance too rapidly.

Here,

Sprains, strains, fractures, overuse injuries, hip flexor strains, and other sports injuries are prevalent.

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After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:O determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.O identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.O look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.O find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

Answers

Identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

What should a patient’s initial assessment include?

Forming a general impression, assessing mental status, assessing airway, assessing breathing, testing circulation, and identifying the patient’s priority for treatment and transfer to the hospital are the six components of primary evaluation. The pulse check is conducted quickly during the main evaluation.

Assessment is an essential component of the teaching-learning process, encouraging student learning and improving instruction in a number of ways. There are three sorts of classroom assessments: assessment for learning, assessment of learning, and assessment as learning. WHEN PERFORMING A PHYSICAL EVALUATION, YOU WILL USE FOUR TECHNIQUES: INSPECTION, PAPPING, PERCUSSION, AND AUSCULTATION. Unless you’re doing an abdominal exam, use them in that order.

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Answer the following questions: 1. During a vasectomy, the ductus deferens is sectioned and cauterized. a. How does this procedure render a male effectively sterile? b. Does a vasectomy stop sperm from being produced? Why or why not? 2. One of the most common complaints of pregnant women is the need to urinate often. Explain this, considering the arrangement of the pelvic organs The condition benign prostatic hypertrophy, in which the prostate is enlarged, often results in urinary retention-the inability to completely empty the bladder. Considering the anatomy of the male genitourinary tract, explain this symptom 3.

Answers

The ductus deferens transports sperm from the seminiferous tubules/epididymis, where they are produced, to the ejaculatory duct.

If the ductus deferens is cut, sperm cannot be delivered to the urethra, rendering the man infertile. Vasectomy, also known as vasoligation, is a surgical technique used for male sterilisation or permanent contraception. The male vasa deferentia are cut & knotted or sealed during the treatment to prevent sperm from entering the urethra and thereby preventing female conception during sexual intercourse.

Vasectomies are often conducted at a doctor's office, medical clinic, or veterinary facility when performed on an animal. Hospitalization is not usually required because the surgery is simple, the incisions are minor, and the requisite equipment is common. Post-vasectomy pain syndrome is the most common possible consequence.

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the correct beginning position for the patient’s feet and crutches is called the ____________ position

Answers

To measure the proper height for axillary crutches the distance between the axillary and the crutch should be three finger width.

Crutches are a sort of walking aid that increases the user's base of support. When a person's legs are unable to sustain their weight, they often use them to shift weight from the lower body to the upper body. The most common kind of crutches are axilla crutches, often known as underarm crutches. These crutches are worn under the arm and are height-adjustable. Although they are simple to use and balance, they could leave you feeling uneasy and worn out. forearm-based crutches

Each time crutches are supplied to a patient, they need to be measured and modified.

Although adverse outcomes associated with using crutches are rare, they can nonetheless occur.

By tailoring the device to the user, adverse effects might be reduced.

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The correct beginning position for the patient’s feet and crutches is called the tripod position.

In general, tripod is the position that helps a patient to provide maximum support and minimize the weight that  falls on your injured leg when you walk or stand . In tripod position it is generally advised to Keep your foot firmly on the ground and place the crutches in front of your body at a 45 degree angle to your working foot.

Hence, we can conclude that Tripod position is the position in which you stand while using crutches and also you can walk comfortably without any pressure on your injured foot. Also the body of a patient in the tripod position always comprises of extended hips and knees. Patient head should be firm and the vertebrae should be elevated.

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which action by the postpartum clinical manager would be the most effective in producing a smooth transition to the new medication

Answers

The following actions are most effective for postpartum clinical managers to ensure a smooth transition to new drugs : Have an open door policy for discussing changes

Postpartum clinical managers successfully implement operational and policy change by applying the concept of evidence-based change. Specifically, we anticipate how people will respond to change and select the appropriate leadership qualities and implementation strategies to execute each plan. A nursing leader's primary responsibility is to be a role model for the healthcare community and team members. The ability to effectively communicate each team member's goals and expectations is critical.

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ncept Map: Electrolyte Balance Complete the Concept Map to describe the importance of sodium in the body's fluid and electrolyte balance. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets View Available Hint(s) Reset Hel pressure levels electrolyte and water levels acids, bases some proteins sodium (Na) ions thirst center and ADH blood renin, angiotensin, aldosterone, and ANP baroreceptors ECF osmolality levels depend on the many charged solutes that nclude are monitored by cells called exert the bulk of osmotic pressure hat determines are directly controlled by are greatly impacted by the balance of the most abundant ECF cations, which are are monitored by cels in the heart and large blood vessels called have a direct impact on blood volume. which is reflected in are directly controlled by

Answers

Sodium ions are an important electrolyte in the extracellular fluid that plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance, blood pressure, acid-base balance, and regulating water balance through its impact on osmotic pressure, thirst center, and hormone regulation.

The importance of sodium in the body's fluid and electrolyte balance:

Sodium (Na) ions are one of the most abundant electrolytes in the extracellular fluid (ECF) and play a crucial role in maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance.Sodium ions exert the bulk of osmotic pressure that determines ECF osmolality levels, which are monitored by cells in the hypothalamus.Sodium ions are closely linked with the thirst center, which triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to regulate water balance in the body.Sodium ions also have a direct impact on blood volume, which is reflected in blood pressure levels. Baroreceptors in the heart and large blood vessels detect changes in blood pressure and trigger the release of hormones such as renin, angiotensin, aldosterone, and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to regulate blood volume and pressure.

Sodium ions also play a crucial role in maintaining acid-base balance by regulating the pH of the blood.

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The nurse manager in the Emergency Department needs to implement new staffing patterns. As a transformational leader, the nurse manager would:

Answers

As transformational leaders, nurse managers must reinforce how these changes will respond to ideas and solutions generated by staff members.

Transformational leadership inspires and motivates others through influence and persuasion rather than rewards (e.g., time off) and punishment (e.g., smaller pay increases). This type of leader listens to the opinions of others (e.g., those of staff members), empower others to lead (e.g., finds solutions to staffing problems), finds ways to break down barriers, and advocates for those who care for patients.

This question is multiple choice:

a. Explain in detail how well the new idea will work.b. Reinforce how this change will respond to the ideas and solutions generated by staff members.c. Reason with staff members that the new idea will save money and allow more free time.d. Imply that raises will be smaller than anticipated if the new idea is not accepted.

The true answer is B

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Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in cancerous malignant tumors. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions of the DNA, which can make cells cancerous. Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse?
expression of inappropriate gene products

Answers

The expression of inappropriate gene products is one might then occur to make cancer worse is correct.

What are abnormal chromosomes?

Chromosomes аre stick-shаped structures in the middle of eаch cell in the body. Eаch cell hаs 46 chromosomes grouped in 23 pаirs. When а chromosome is аbnormаl, it cаn cаuse heаlth problems in the body. Аbnormаl chromosomes are most often hаppen аs а result of аn error during cell division. Chromosome аbnormаlities often hаppen due to one or more of these:

Errors during the dividing of sex cells (meiosis)Errors during the dividing of other cells (mitosis)Exposure to substаnces thаt cаuse birth defects (terаtogens)

Аll cаncers begin when one or more genes in а cell mutаte. А mutаtion is а chаnge. It creаtes аn аbnormаl protein. Or it mаy prevent а protein’s formаtion. Аn аbnormаl protein provides different informаtion thаn а normаl protein. This cаn cаuse cells to multiply uncontrollаbly аnd become cаncerous.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full  question was

Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in cancerous malignant tumors. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions of the DNA, which can make cells cancerous. Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse?

A) an increase in nondisjunction

B) expression of inappropriate gene products

C) a decrease in mitotic frequency

D) death of the cancer cells in the tumor

Thus, the expression of inappropriate gene products (B) is correct.

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A patient who is a chronic alcoholic is admitted to the hospital. Admission laboratory work reveals a magnesium level of 1.2 mEq/L. The prescriber orders intravenous magnesium sulfate in a 10% solution at a rate of 10 mL/min. What will the nurse do

Answers

Given that this patient has hypomagnesemia, magnesium sulfate should be administered intravenously. The nurse is right to query the rate of infusion, despite the fact that the concentration of magnesium in the solution is accurate.

Hypomagnesemia: What is it?

A second tier of mg in your blood is referred to as hypomagnesemia or magnesium deficiency. It might be light or heavy. Mg is an ion that plays a crucial role in several physiological processes that influence nerve transmission, cellular function, and other processes.

What causes hypomagnesemia most frequently?

A low serum mg level in the blood (or less 1.46 mg/dL) results in hypomagnesemia, an electrolyte disorder. Chronic illness, alcohol misuse disorders, intestinal losses, renal setbacks, and other disorders can all contribute to hypomagnesemia.

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A client with memory loss is concerned about the possibility that it may be inherited. Which disorder will the nurse teach the client is considered an inherited cause of dementia

Answers

The nurse will teach the client that Huntington's disease is a hereditary cause of dementia illness.

Dementia is a combination of symptoms that damage your memory, reasoning, and social abilities sufficiently enough to interfere with your everyday life. There is no unique illness that causes dementia; nevertheless, various conditions can cause dementia.

Memory loss is a common symptom of dementia, although it can be caused by a variety of factors. Memory loss by itself does not indicate dementia, however it is frequently one of the first symptoms of the disorder. Although Alzheimer's disease is the leading prevalent cause of progressive dementia in older persons, there are also additional causes of dementia. Some dementia symptoms may be reversible depending on the aetiology.

Damage or loss of nerve cells & their interconnections in the brain causes dementia. Dementia may affect people differently & generate varied symptoms depending on the section of the brain that is affected. Dementias are frequently classified according to what they share in common, including the protein and proteins deposited inside the brain or the portion of the brain affected. Some disorders, such as those caused by pharmaceutical reactions or vitamin shortages, resemble dementia and may improve with therapy.

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The Nurse will teach the client about the Huntington's Disease which shows symptoms like dementia. Thus the correct answer is (D). Huntington's disease.

As a result of a brain injury from bleeding or blockage, vascular dementia develops. Brain atrophy is brought on by frontotemporal dementia, which is not inherited. Alcoholism leads to the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome over time. A genetic illness called Huntington's disease causes chorea and dementia. Dementia is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that significantly impair daily functioning, including memory, reasoning, and social skills. Even while there isn't a single ailment that specifically causes dementia, a variety of disorders can. Memory loss is a common symptom of dementia, but it can also happen for a variety of other causes. Even while memory loss is frequently one of the first indications of dementia, the condition is not always present. Despite the fact that there are a number of other causes of dementia in older persons, Alzheimer's disease is the most common one. Some dementia symptoms could be manageable, depending on the underlying cause. Huntington's Disease which shows symptoms like memory loss.

The complete question is:

A client with memory loss is concerned about the possibility that it may be inherited. Which disorder will the nurse teach the client is considered an inherited cause of dementia?

a) Vascular dementia

b) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

c) Frontotemporal dementia

d) Huntington's disease

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an injury to the body of a muscle or attachment of a tendon is a/an _____.

Answers

Answer
an injury to the body of a muscle or attachment of a tendon is a strain

The ________ technique uses X-rays to generate an image of the living human brain.
a) EEG
b) microdialysis
c) magnetic resonance
imaging.
d) computerized
tomography scanning.
e) PET scanning

Answers

d) CT scanning. A CT scan shows different X-ray images around an part of the body
The correct answer is D

A legally blind client is in pre-op area prior to an appendectomy. What steps does the nurse take to effectively communicate with this client

Answers

A client who is legally blind is in the pre-operative area before an appendectomy. To successfully interact with this client, the nurse must "notify the client prior to touching the client." Thus, the correct answer is C.

When caring for a legally blind client, it is important for the nurse to take steps to effectively communicate with the client. One of these steps is to notify the client prior to touching them. This is important because the client may not be able to see the nurse approaching and may feel disoriented or uncomfortable if they are touched unexpectedly.

In addition, the nurse should also consider the following steps to effectively communicate with a legally blind client:

Make direct verbal contact with the client.Use clear, concise language.Use nonverbal cues.Use touch. Touch can be a powerful way to communicate, especially for a legally blind client. The nurse should use touch cautiously and only with the client's permission.

By doing these things, the nurse will be able to talk to a client who is legally blind and give them good care.

This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:

A. Make direct eye contact with the client when communicating.B. Sit near the client to provide reassurance about the strange surroundings.C. Notify the client prior to touching the client.D. Inform the client that the nurse will be working nearby.

The correct answer is C.

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What are 3 common sports injuries?

Answers

Sprains and strains are the most frequent sports injuries. Knee problems. muscular swell.

What type of sports injury occurs most frequently?

Strains. Because we engage so many muscles and tendons when we play or exercise, strains are by far the most frequent of all sports-related ailments.

What football injury is the most common?

Football knee injuries are most frequent, especially those to the menisci and anterior or posterior cruciate ligaments (ACL/PCL) (cartilage of the knee). These knee injuries may have a negative impact on a player's long-term participation in the sport.

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The most frequent sports wounds include: both strains and sprains, Knee problems and muscular swell. These are the 3 common sports injuries.

1. Sprain and strain:- A stretched or damaged ligament results in a sprain. A sprain can be brought on by falling, twisting, or even being struck. Sprains of the wrist and ankle are common. Symptoms include joint immobility, discomfort, edema, and bruising.

A strained or torn muscle or tendon is known as a strain. Strain can result from twisting or tugging these tissues. Muscle strains in the back and hamstrings are frequent. Pain, muscle spasms, swelling, and difficulty moving the affected muscle are some symptoms.

2. Knee injuries:- The most common disease affecting the knee is osteoarthritis. The cartilage in the knee gradually wears away, causing pain and swelling. Knee issues can also result from injuries to the tendons and ligaments. Anterior cruciate ligament damage is a frequent accident (ACL). Usually, a sudden twisting motion causes you to tear your ACL. Common sports injuries include ACL and other knee ailments.

3. swelling of muscles :- If something is inflamed, it may be swollen. The main muscles to be affected are around the shoulders, hips and thighs.

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Damage to the insula would be reflected by which deficit?
A. Unable to identify objects
B. Unable to recognize numbers
C. Unable to use verbs
D. Unable to use nouns

Answers

Damage to the insula would be reflected by Unable to use verbs.

The insular cortex is positioned deep within the brain's lateral sulcus. The insula, often known as the "Island of Reil" after its discovery by Johann Chrstian Reil in 1809, is a section of cortex that is not visible from the surface.

The insula has a role in gustatory and sensorimotor processing, risk-reward behaviour, autonomics, pain pathways, and auditory and vestibular function. People may experience pain and have consciousness of their body and themselves because of the insula. Indeed, research on humans and animals have linked the insula cortex to the processing of good and negative emotions such as anger, grief, fear and anxiety, disgust, happiness or pleasure, trust, surprise, and social emotions.

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What happens to the body when doing aerobic exercise?

Answers

When your doing aerobic exercise, there is several thing happen in your body such as:

They burn energy more than in the normal condition where this will help prevent diabetes.Your blood circulation is faster because in the energy circulation oxygen is needed and the oxygen is brought by red blood cell.Your lung is more active because of the needed of the oxygen is increase. Your heart will more active. To circulate the blood faster to your body, the heart need to pump it faster.

What do you need aerobic exercise?

Aerobic exercise can prevent you from a risk condition such as diabetes, high blood pressure, stress, etc. Before you are doing the main aerobic step, it is highly recommended to do warm up first.

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what should you do if you find a patient entrapped in a vehicle who is in need of cpr?
Apply manual stabilization until the patient can be extricated. Perform rapid extrication techniques. Perform CPR during the extrication process. Apply a bag-valve mask (BVM).

Answers

Apply a bag-valve mask (BVM)  when a person entrapped in a vehicle who is in need of cpr so the last option is correct.

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is an emergency procedure in which chest compressions are combined with artificial respiration to manually maintain intact brain function until further measures are taken to restore spontaneous perfusion and breathing in a person in cardiac arrest. Thirty chest compressions and two breaths count as one cycle. Be then careful not to breathe that too often or they exert too much force. Continue the chest compressions to restore blood flow. When the automated external defibrillator (AED) becomes then available, put it on and follow the instructions.

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to measure the proper height for axillary crutches the distance between the axillary and the crutch should be three _____________________ width

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To measure the proper height for axillary crutches the distance between the axillary and the crutch should be three finger width.

Crutches are a sort of walking aid that increases the size of a person's base of support. They transmit weight from the legs to a upper body and are frequently used by those who are unable to sustain their weight with their legs. The most frequent form of crutch is underarm crutches, commonly known as axilla crutches. These crutches are worn under your arm and may be changed in height. They are simple to use and balance, but they might cause discomfort and tiredness. Crutches for the forearms.

Crutches must be measured and modified for each patient to whom they are supplied. While the prevalence of adverse events associated with the use of crutches is modest, a range of medical issues can develop. Adapting the gadget to the user may help to decrease unpleasant effects.

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When the patient is standing in the tripod posture, the crutches should be held 15 centimeters (or 6 inches) in front of their feet and 15 centimeters (or 6 inches) from the sides of their feet to measure the proper height for axillary crutches the distance between the axillary and the crutch.

The pad is placed on the ribcage beneath the armpit while the grip is maintained below and parallel to the pad. Typically, they are employed to assist patients whose capacity to walk is momentarily limited. When utilizing underarm crutches, a towel or another soft covering could be necessary from time to time to avoid or decrease armpit harm. Crutch paralysis or crutch palsy can be caused by compression of the nerves in the axilla, or armpit. In instance, "the brachial plexus in the axilla is frequently injured by the pressure of a crutch. In these situations, the ulnar nerve is typically the second most commonly afflicted nerve after the radial nerve.

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ACTIVE LEARNING TEMPLATE: Nursing Skill STUDENT NAME SKILL NAME Wet to dry dressing change REVIEW MODULE CHAPTER Description of Skill Indications CONSIDERATIONS Nursing Interventions (pre, intra, post) Outcomes/Evaluation Client Education Potential Complications Nursing Interventions

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Whenever a dressing is changed, a wound is cleaned, assessed, and new, clean bandages are applied.

After removal of the initial bandage, the covering should really be changed as frequently as necessary to prevent wound discharge from saturating the gauze. Ordinarily, this happens once to four times every day.

Potential complications from care processes (pre, intra, and post) Customer Education Healthcare Interventions Ian Gavin Dress Adjustments Whenever a dressing is changed, a wound is cleaned, assessed, and new, clean bandages are applied. Check the injury often and note any alterations to the exudate, granulation tissue, or extent or profundity of the lesion.

Use aseptic method when removing dressings and treating injuries to prevent infection. Document Infection and hematoma are possible side effects of dressing changes.

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The illicit drug of choice during the 1980s (the so-called "me" or "greed" decade) was: a) LSD b) cocaine c) marijuana d) heroin e) amphetamine.

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B) Cocaine, The client's ability to integrate the knowledge into their lifestyle is demonstrated by the nurse's note that the client can arrange a low-fat lunch.

Describe cocaine?

A stimulant, cocaine is a chemical. It expedites the exchange of signals between the brain and organism. Cocaine is produced from the leaves of the South American native coca bush, Erythroxylon coca.

How does cocaine affect the sympathetic nervous system?

The sympathetic nervous system is activated by cocaine and methamphetamine via raising catecholamine levels at connections. Dopamine, a neurotransmitter released in essential brain regions, is raised as a result of these substances' rewarding meaning pleasurable effects.

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The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction and that leads to the collapse of alveoli. What complication should the nurse monitor for

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The complication should nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction that leads to the collapse of the alveoli in atelectasis.

What is atelectasis?

Аtelectаsis is the collаpse of one or more pаrts of the lung. It specificаlly аffects the smаll аir sаcs cаlled аlveoli. When you breаthe in, your lungs fill up with аir. The аir trаvels to sаcs in your lungs (аlveoli), where the oxygen moves into your blood. The blood delivers oxygen to orgаns аnd tissues throughout your body.

If you don’t hаve enough аir coming in to inflаte your аlveoli or if outside pressure is pushing on them, they cаn collаpse (аtelectаsis). Аtelectаsis cаn hаppen in а smаll аreа or the whole lung. If enough of your lung is аffected, your blood mаy not receive enough oxygen, which cаn cаuse heаlth issues.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was

The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction and that leads to the collapse of alveoli. What complication should the nurse monitor for?

a. pleural effusion.

b. pulmonary edema.

c. oxygen toxicity.

d. atelectasis

Thus, the correct answer is D.

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When a medical professional talks about the axial
region of the body, what general area of the body
is being described?
O
the appendages
the core
the brain
the hands and feet

Answers

Answer: The core.

Explanation:

The appendages as well as the hands and feet would be in the appendicular skeleton region. The brain is an organ, so it would not be included in the list of bones in the axial skeleton.

Which of the following terms means drooping or prolapse of the pancreas?O Pancreatosis O Pancreatography O PancreatopexyO Pancreatoptosis

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Pancreatoptosis means drooping or prolapse of the pancreas.

Pancreatitis is pancreatic inflammation. The pancreas is a long, flat gland located in the upper abdomen beyond the stomach. The pancreas generates enzymes that aid digestion as well as hormones that govern how your body handles sugar (glucose).

Pancreatitis can be acute, meaning it arises rapidly and lasts for several days. Chronic pancreatitis, or pancreatitis that lasts a long time, affects certain people. Treatment improves mild cases of pancreatitis, but severe cases might result in life-threatening consequences.

Pancreatitis occurs whenever digestive enzymes get activated while remaining with in pancreas, irritating and inflaming the pancreatic cells. Damage to the pancreas can develop with recurrent attacks of acute pancreatitis, leading to chronic pancreatitis. Scar tissue may develop in the pancreas, resulting in function loss. A malfunctioning pancreas can lead to digestive issues and diabetes.

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