The vitamins that considered as antioxidants are Vitamin C, Vitamin E and Beta Carotene.
What are Vitamins?
The natural and essential micronutrients that are necessary for proper functioning of cell, growth and development in an organism. They include Vitamin A, C, D, E and K along with group of Vitamin B. Each vitamin has a different function in our body.
Talking about their origin, a polish American biochemist Casimir funk started their discovery in the year 1912. He is considered as the Father of Vitamin and Vitamin therapy.
What are Antioxidant Vitamin?
Vitamin C, Vitamin E and Beta Carotene are the antioxidant vitamin. They inhibit oxidation and hence stopping production of free radicals. This action prevents damage which could have been caused by free radicals by neutralizing them. Vitamin E is considered as the most powerful antioxidant vitamin.
The source of these vitamins can be fruits and vegetables, nuts and seeds.
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while providing initial ventilations to an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest despite an adequate mask-to-face seal. you should:
While providing initial ventilations to an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest despite an adequate mask-to-face seal we should increase the volume of your ventilations.
What is ventilations ?
Ventilation, as used in science, is the process through which the lungs get air by exchanging their contents with the outside air. The most typical form of ventilation in terrestrial animals is pulmonary ventilation, which is defined as follows. It is because of this procedure that we can actually breathe. The medical definition of ventilation, on the other hand, relates to the process of breathing by the respiratory system, including that of the human body.
While providing initial ventilations to an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest despite an adequate mask-to-face seal we should increase the volume of your ventilations.
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which statement accurately describes bariatric surgery options? a. contrary to popular belief, vitamin and mineral deficiencies after surgery are rare. b. surgery might be appropriate for people with a bmi > 40 or >35 with other obesity-related health problems. c. surgery will only work for people proven to be able to achieve adequate weight loss with diet and exercise. d. in most cases, >75 percent of excess weight remains lost ten years after surgery.
a. contrary to popular belief, vitamin and mineral deficiencies after surgery are rare statement accurately describes bariatric surgery options
What is weight-loss surgery?Gastric bypass, sleeve gastrectomy, gastric band, and duodenal switch are among the bariatric surgery methods. Making alterations to your digestive tract is a component of bariatric surgery, which includes gastric bypass and other weight-loss procedures. When diet and exercise have failed or when you are experiencing major health issues as a result of your weight, bariatric surgery is performed. In the first 12 to 21 months following surgery, people who have gastric bypass experience fast weight loss. There are several causes for the quick weight reduction, including: not being allowed to eat for 24 to 48 hours. alterations to portion sizes when food is permitted
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a client suffered a laceration in his workshop and lost a significant amount of blood. the clots that formed have begun to retract. the process of clot dissolution has begun, which starts with:
A client suffered a laceration in his workshop and lost a significant amount of blood, the clots that formed have begun to retract. the process of clot dissolution has begun, which starts with plasminogen activation.
What is the wound healing procedure depicted in this situation?Primary intention healing is the wound-healing process outlined in this case.Secondary intention healingTertiary intention healing.Approximation healing.What happens when there are no more available clotting components?
"There is so much clotting that there are no accessible clotting components remaining, and bleeding ensues." Nursing students are studying the regular stages of hemostasis, particularly the first stage, which involves vasoconstriction of the blood artery.
What effect do antihypertensives have on skin integrity and wound healing?Skin integrity and wound healing are reduced in blood pressure medication patients because of antihypertensives:
Can be harmful to cells. Increase the risk of ischemia.Postpone wound healing. Increase the risk of hematoma formation.Learn more about hemostasis here:-
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which of the following activities are considered to be part of the core competencies for public health professionals? (select all that apply.) group of answer choices obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community implementing nursing care and subsequent evaluation outcomes maintaining public health departments throughout the united states defining variables relevant to current public health problems
The two option are correct A and B. Defining variables relevant to current public health problems and Obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community.
What does it mean to be a public health professional?People who work in public health ensure the conditions necessary for people to be healthy through scientific research and health education. To stop the spread of disease, this could entail immunizing both children and adults.
What do public health professionals focus on?The study of protecting and enhancing the health of individuals and their communities is referred to as public health. In order to accomplish this effort, healthy lifestyles are promoted, disease & injury prevention research is conducted, and infectious disease diagnosis, prevention, or response are studied.
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The complete question is -
Which of the following activities are considered to be part of the core competencies for public health professionals? (Select all that apply.)
a. Defining variables relevant to current public health problems
b. Obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community
c. Implementing nursing care and subsequent evaluation outcomes
d. Maintaining public health departments throughout the United States
a person's oxygen saturation is 89% and the pulse display on the pulse oximeter is aligned with the radial pulse. how should the healthcare provider respond?
Option C is the correct answer. Healthcare providers should ask the client "Are you having any difficulty breathing?".
Whenever a person's oxygen saturation level is abnormal, there might be some difficulty in the respiratory system. Healthcare providers should first ask if the client is facing any difficulty breathing. 89% Saturation level is considered to be abnormal. Further assessments should be done before any Intervention.
The first assessment should be about the Respiratory System which should also include a subjective assessment of the client's breathing. The situation of the client's current health state will determine how you proceed with the Interventions.
Hence, Option C is the correct answer and the Breathing of the client should be checked first prior to any intervention.
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Complete Question:
4. A person’s oxygen saturation is 89% and the pulse displayed on the pulse oximeter is aligned with the radial pulse. How should the healthcare provider respond?
a. Give oxygen to the client
b. Raise up the head of the client’s bed
c. Ask the client, “are you having any difficulty breathing?” **
d. Note this finding as normal and continue with the assessment
a 12-month-old boy with fever who has a suspected uti has vomited 5 times in the past 7 hours and his last wet diaper was approximately 6 hours ago. when talking with the parents about what action should be taken, which is the most correct plan?
A 12-month-old boy with a fever who has a suspected UTI has vomited 5 times in the past 7 hours, the following action should be taken such as recommend continued observation at home, recommend antimicrobial therapy, and conduct the renal ultrasound.
Having a fever implies your child features a modern infection. It's most likely caused by an infection. You will not know the cause of the fever until other indications
Having a fever implies your child features a modern infection. It's most likely caused by an infection. You will not know the cause of the fever until other indications create.
This may take 24 hours. For newborn children, more than 3 months ancient, most fevers are great for debilitated children.
The chemoreceptor trigger zone is the region most dependable for the spewing reflex. Usually a part of the medulla, which is within the lower, baser, portion of the brainstem.
The heaving center may be an expansive gather of axons and receptors that, when fortified, deliver an emetic reaction and will lead to an individual spewing.
It can take up to 2 days for the test to let us know if there's a disease. In case your infant has contamination, the specialist will likely endorse anti-microbials.
In case your child is endorsed anti-microbials, it is imperative to allow each measurement of the pharmaceutical, indeed if your child appears superior. Most children will never get a UTI.
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Tell us what you know about the nursing profession. How are you an underrepresented minority in nursing or an economically disadvantaged student?
Nurses have many duties, including caring for patients, communicating with doctors, administering medicine and checking vital signs. Making up for the biggest healthcare job in the U.S., nurses play a vital role in medical facilities and enjoy a large number of job opportunities.
Few nurses from racial/ethnic minority groups with advanced nursing degrees pursue faculty careers. According to 2021 data from AACN's annual survey, only 19.2% of full-time nursing school faculty come from minority backgrounds, and only 7.4% are male.
suppose you are a health care worker who is examining a child with the following symptoms: facial and bodily malformations, short attention span, hyperactivity, and motor impairments. which drug would you suspect that the child's mother used during pregnancy?
You might guess that the mother of the child took alcohol when she was pregnant.
Is it safe to drink when pregnant?No. Despite the fact that having a glass of wine at dinner or a mug of beer with friends may seem harmless, there is no known "safe amount" of alcohol to take during pregnancy. Alcohol can have a significant negative impact on a fetus' development and is one of the primary causes of both physical and mental birth defects.
There is no level of alcohol consumption that is considered safe when trying to get pregnant or while you are already pregnant. Furthermore, drinking while expecting is never a good idea. The harmful consequences of drinking alcohol are the same for all alcoholic beverages, including all wines and beers. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) can be prevented if a newborn does not consume alcohol before birth.
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nathan is diabetic and has been advised by his doctor to reduce his sugar intake. he, however, discounts the negative health consequences of sugar and frequently eats candy. this is an example of which function of attitudes?
Answer: The correct answer to this question would be the ego-defensive function of attitudes.
Hope that helps.
Let me know if you have any further questions.
Nathan's attitude is an example of Ego-defensive function of attitudes. This is explained below.
What is the ego-defensive function of attitudes?In order to escape facts or defend themselves from their own poor self-esteem, consumers use attitudes' like ego-defensive function as a defensive technique.
Nathan is holding an ego-defensive function of attitude because he has a positive attitude toward candy and discounting the negative health consequences of sugar, even though his doctor has advised him to reduce his sugar intake due to his diabetes.
By holding onto a positive attitude towards candy, Nathan is defending himself against the negative emotions that might arise from acknowledging the potential harm that his behavior is causing.
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a client has been referred to the dermatology office for an evaluation of a suspected common malignant tumor of the skin. which is the most common malignant tumor of the skin?
The most common malignant tumor of the skin is basal cell carcinoma.
The most prevalent type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma (BCC).BCC is most common in individuals who have a light complexion. The basal cells, a type of skin cell that replaces dead skin cells with new ones, are where basal cell carcinoma develops.
Although it can take a variety of forms, basal cell carcinoma typically manifests as a slightly transparent bump on the skin. It is a kind of skin cancer that usually shows up on the face or other parts of the skin that are exposed to the sun. Basal cell carcinoma typically appears as a brown or glossy black bump with a rolled border on brown and black skin.
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a health care provider suspects a client has celiac disease after the client reports sickness every time after eating something made with wheat, barley, and/or rye. the provider will further assess the client for which potential manifestations to confirm the diagnosis? select all that apply.
The small intestine's lining is damaged by the immune system's reaction to consuming gluten, which can lead to health problems. Bread, pasta, cereal, and cookies all contain the protein gluten, which causes a peculiar immunological reaction and celiac disease.
What is meant by Celiac disease?An immune reaction to ingesting the gluten protein, which can be found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Over time, the small intestine's lining is damaged by the immune system's reaction to consuming gluten, which can lead to health problems. In addition, it makes some nutrients more difficult to absorb (malabsorption).
The typical sign is diarrhea. Bloating, gas, exhaustion, anemia, and osteoporosis are further signs. Many individuals have no symptoms.
A strict gluten-free diet that can help manage symptoms and encourage intestinal healing is the cornerstone of treatment.
Gluten, a protein present in foods like bread, pasta, cereal, and cookies, triggers an unusual immune response that leads to coeliac disease.
Therefore, the correct answer options are
b) Iron deficiency
c) Diarrhea
d) Abdominal pain
The complete question is:
A healthcare provider suspects a client has celiac disease after the client reports sickness every time after eating something made with wheat, barley, and/or rye. The provider will further assess the client for which potential manifestations to confirm the diagnosis. Select all that apply.
a) Increased bone density
b) Iron deficiency
c) Diarrhea
d) Abdominal pain
e) Constipation
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oxygen consumption after exercise (during recovery) is always elevated above resting levels, regardless of the exercise intensity. this is known as . . . group of answer choices vo2max oxygen deficit epoc oxidative phosphorolation
Oxygen consumption after exercise (during recovery) is always elevated above resting levels, regardless of the exercise intensity, this is known as EPOC.
Excess Post-exercise Oxygen Consumption is referred to as EPOC. Following cardiovascular activity, there is an increase in oxygen utilization throughout this time of recuperation. It can be defined as the additional oxygen consumption during recovery over what would typically be seen during rest.
The resupply of CrP and ATP, the metabolism (i.e., conversion of lactate to pyruvate), and hormone recovery are a few elements that affect EPOC. Additionally, the body needs the higher oxygen demand during this recovery time to assist in returning the elevated body temperature, heart rate, and breathing to their pre-exercise levels.
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in a commonsense model, a person's symptoms, the treatments that result, and their implications for quality of life are referred to as a(n) of the disease.
In the common sense model, the effects of a person's symptoms, treatment, and quality of life are referred to as the consequences of a disease.
The Leventhal Common Sense Model (CSM) is used to understand how people respond to disease. This model suggests that disease perception directly influences coping strategies and influences outcomes. Awareness of a disease is an unprofessional interpretation of the patient's acquired information and personal experiences.
This model proposes beliefs about five dimensions of disease beliefs: the identity of symptoms, their duration, causes, consequences, and the ability to control symptoms. Most research on common-sense models has focused on these disease concepts. Indeed, the conceptualization of disease concepts as a combination of awareness and abstraction distinguishes the common-sense model from other health concept frameworks that tend to focus solely on abstraction (Leventhal et al., 2016).
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a client has an abrupt onset of mental slowing and depression. which conditions in the client's history would indicate vascular dementia as a cause of these changes? select all that apply.
The most common early-stage symptoms of vascular dementia are problems with planning or organizing, making decisions, or solving problems. Difficulties following a series of steps (such as when cooking a meal), a slower rate of thought.
What is the most common cause of cerebral vascular pathology?
Cerebrovascular disease is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. This happens when high cholesterol levels combine with inflammation in the brain's arteries, causing cholesterol can accumulate as a dense, waxy plaque that can constrict or obstruct blood flow.
Vascular dementia is typically caused by conditions that affect older people, such as atherosclerosis (artery hardening), heart disease, and stroke. The number of adults over 65 is increasing. Individuals with long-term conditions like heart disease and diabetes are living longer lives.
Therefore, clients' history of lack of exercise and drinking alcohol is the onset of mental slowing and depression.
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at xyz fitness, successful candidates for personal trainers must first have a bachelor's degree in a related field and then they must pass a physical fitness test to move to the personal interview stage of the selection process. this is an example of what type of selection process?
This type of selection process is an example of a multiple hurdle model.
What is a multiple hurdle model?A multiple hurdles method is a recruitment selection structure that establishes a set of hurdles that a candidate must overcome in order to progress to the next step in the selection process. Each hurdle consists of a cutoff score. The hurdles consist of different aspects of a choice or selection test.
Educational level, cognitive ability, and other such tests will be considered before a candidate is submitted to the selection process to narrow down the candidate pool. The multiple hurdles method allows employers to narrow the candidate pool in consideration of those who are suitable for the position without affecting the effectiveness of the selection process.
The multiple hurdles model requires candidates to go through each step of the selection process. Failure to perform any step will disqualify the applicant.
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question 36 drugs intended for single use by parenteral administration are typically contained in a(n) a. foil packet. b. angiocath. c. ampule. d. vial.
Answer:
A) Ampoule
Explanation:
These medicines cannot be reused and are usually used to store and transport single doses of drugs or samples. They are typically glass, but you may also encounter plastic ampoules.
snoring, snorting, gasping, or pauses in inhaling and exhaling air along with daytime sleepiness and fatigue; lack of sufficient ventilation of the lungs during sleep are the predominant symptoms of
Snoring, snorting, gasping, or pauses in inhaling and fatigue lack of sufficient ventilation of the lungs during sleep are the predominant symptoms of breathing-related sleep disorders.
The raspy or loud sound that results when air passes through relaxed throat tissues and causes the tissues to vibrate with each breath is known as snoring. Most individuals snore occasionally, but for some, it can be a persistent issue. Obstructive sleep apnea is frequently linked to snoring as a sleep problem (OSA). having dominance over others, power, or influence; Not all snorers have OSA; preeminent. conspicuous; preponderant: a characteristic that predominant; a painting's predominant color. Seeing a doctor for additional OSA examination may be advised if any of the following symptoms are present in addition to snoring:
observed breathing pauses during sleeping
extreme drowsiness during the day
Having trouble focusing
daytime headaches
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a selection process includes an assessment of candidates' work ethic, but those involved in administering the selection process have different ideas regarding how the work ethic assessment should be scored. this situation is most likely to adversely affect what characteristic of this selection system?
This situation is most likely to adversely affect reliability of the system.
What is reliability of the system?Reliability defines how consistently the quality and safety of a healthcare system or process perform over the required period of time. A reliable system has less risk of errors and process failures that can harm patients. For example, regular anesthesia is considered very reliable.
Reliability is also important in public health efforts. For example, a reliable developmental screening system provides a consistent process for providing developmental screening to young children and referring them to interventions when needed.
Aims to determine the effectiveness and reliability of each of the processes:
SafetyPatient-CenteredTimelyEffectiveEfficientEquitableTo know more about reliability of the system visit:
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cardiovascular exercise training with the objective of developing basic health-related fitness for children should take place at least three times per week. what is the minimal recommended intensity?
The minimal recommended intensity is vigorous-intensity activity on at least 3 days per week.
Even low-intensity activity can offset some of the risks of sedentary work. Get even more benefits when you're active for at least 300 minutes a week. Gradually increase the amount and intensity over time. At least 60 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity each day. Cardio Most of his 60 minutes each day should include walking running or any activity that gets his heart pumping.
You should be physically active at least 3 days a week. The role of aerobic exercise in weight loss is to burn calories. The more you do cardiovascular exercise, the more calories you burn. If you're trying to lose weight, you should aim to do at least 250 minutes of cardio per week for at least 5 days per week. They develop healthy bones muscles and joints. Develop a healthy heart and lungs. Improve coordination strength and muscle control.
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a 41-year-old woman diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (ms) is sharing her story with members of an ms support group made up of people recently diagnosed. which aspects of her health problem should the woman warn others to expect at some point in the progression of the disease? select all that apply.
Answer:
where are the options?
Explanation:
a 25-year-old, tall, thin man is exercising and suddenly experiences shortness of breath and pleural pain and is breathing fast. he has no past medical history, but he does smoke about 1 pack per day. he goes to the emergency room. a likely cause of these symptoms is a(n):
Spontaneous pneumothorax is the cause for shortness of breath and pleural pain and is breathing fast.
What is a spontaneous pneumothorax is what?The abrupt emergence of a collapsed lung without any obvious reason, such as a traumatic injury to the chest or a known lung condition, is known as a spontaneous pneumothorax. The buildup of air in the area surrounding the lungs is what causes them to collapse.
The first spontaneous pneumothorax is most likely brought on by the creation of tiny air sacs (blebs) in the lung tissue. When these blebs rupture, air leaks into the pleural space. The pressure from air in the pleural space puts pressure on the lung, which may cause it to collapse.
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a 5-year-old child has been admitted to the hospital and is going to have an iv started in the procedure room. which instructions will be most helpful for the child and the parent?
Have the parent sing softly to the child during the procedure will be most helpful for the child and the parent.
Making musical noises with the voice is the act of singing. In jazz and/or popular music, a performer who sings is referred to as a singer or vocalist. Music that can be sung with or without instrumental accompaniment, such as arias, recitatives, songs, etc., is performed by singers. A choir or other musical group will frequently sing together. The accompaniment for singers can range from a single instrument (as in art songs or some jazz styles) to a symphony orchestra or big band, or they can perform alone. Various singing genres include classical music, such as opera and Chinese opera, as well as world music, jazz, blues, ghazal, Indian, and Japanese music, as well as popular music genres like pop and rock.
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conduct sanitation and inspection services; conduct communicable disease control programs; collect health statistics; and deliver maternal and child health services?
Collect health statistics implement epidemic control programs sanitation, sanitary engineering, and testing provide screening vaccination health education, and chronic disease control programs implement school health programs Provide hygiene and, in some cases, mental health services.
Passive Active and Symptomatic Surveillance. Passive surveillance is the most common form of surveillance and occurs when laboratories, doctors, or other healthcare providers routinely report cases or illnesses to local health departments.
According to these publications, local authorities are responsible for monitoring health problems and making available services to solve these problems. It provides basic tools for quantifying disease extent, patterns of change, and associated risk factors. Poor communication can lead to the perception that governments are unable to respond to outbreaks.
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Imagine that a health care employee was injured at work and reported the injury to OSHA because he or she felt that the situation was unsafe. However, upon investigating, OSHA discovered that the employee was using the equipment unsafely and had not attended the employer-provided training on how to use the machinery. What do you think the consequences would be for the health care facility in this case?
Answer:Hope this helps.
Explanation:
When you look at compliance in healthcare, the goal is to comply with industry standards and regulations to ultimately provide safe, high-quality patient care.
You might be thinking that this task falls to a compliance officer. According to SAI Global’s 2018 Healthcare Compliance Benchmark Report, 20% of healthcare companies have one full-time staff person managing compliance, while 13% rely on one part-time worker to handle compliance.
But compliance is truly everyone’s responsibility – with employees at every level thinking about it and participating in it – as it has enormous business implications. Do not make the mistake of relegating compliance to a single compliance officer or department.
While one person or department might take the lead on compliance efforts, the responsibility truly falls to all employees to perform their jobs in the spirit of doing the right thing, both legally and morally.
And it starts with organizational leaders setting the tone and encouraging transparency and ethical behavior. The ultimate goal? To develop a culture of accountability from top to bottom.
The combined effort it takes to achieve compliance is exactly what makes it so difficult. Nevertheless, compliance is vitally important for your organization to thrive, especially in the highly regulated, high-risk healthcare industry.
In fact, compliance isn’t just important, it is mandatory, covering everything from HIPAA and drug regulations to fraud protection and antitrust issues. It can be easy to get lost in the regulations and lose sight of performing medicine.
Definition of Non-compliance
Now that you know about compliance, what is non-compliance? In general, non-compliance in healthcare is when individuals do not follow the rules, regulations, and laws that relate to healthcare practices.
While this could include patients not complying with medical orders, the focus here will be on regulatory non-compliance. While non-compliance can cover both internal and external rules and regulations, most healthcare non-compliance issues deal with patient safety, the privacy of patient information, and billing practices.
transdermal patches are intended to release a drug over an extended period of time. particular care must be used with this type of drug administration owing to its design and thin metal backing. the modality of concern in medical imaging would be a. pet scanning. b. sonography. c. mri scanning. d. ct scanning.
A transdermal patch is a patch that sticks to your skin & contains medication.
Which transdermal patch do you mean?A transdermal patch is a patch that sticks to your skin & contains medication. Your person consumes the drug from the patch over time. If you'd rather not use pills or injections, several medications may well be taken most comfortably with a patch.
What kinds of transdermal patches are examples of?Besides hormone patched (estrogen, testosterone, and contraceptive), vitamin patches, pain patch (fentanyl and buprenorphine), & motion sickness patches are also frequently used transdermal (scopolamine).
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MRI scanning is the medical imaging modality of concern.
What you mean by transdermal patch?A transdermal patch is a patch that adheres to your skin and contains medication. Your body absorbs the medication from the patch over time. If you prefer not to take pills or injections, some drugs may be taken more comfortably with a patch.
A transdermal patch may have the following negative effects:
Having difficulty falling or staying asleepstomachache and a sore throatSkin sensitivity, itching, swelling, or redness in the patched area.An overdose can occur if you use too much fentanyl skin patch or combine it with too much another drug. If this occurs, seek immediate emergency assistance. An overdose can cause breathing problems, as well as loss of consciousness and death.
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an adult client with a long history of alcohol abuse has been diagnosed with wernicke disease. which is the most likely course of this client's health problem?
Answer: Chronic Alcohol Use
Explanation:
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome happens due to a lack of thiamine. This essential vitamin changes (converts) sugar into energy. When you have too little thiamine, your brain doesn't have enough energy to work properly. The most common cause of thiamine deficiency is chronic alcohol use.
3.clara discovers that a lot of her calories come from carbohydrate. she initially decided to eliminate all carbohydrate from her diets, but mary tells her that this is a poor decision. why?
Mary tells Clara that eliminating all carbohydrate from her diet is a poor decision because carbohydrates provided energy to our body organs for their proper functioning.
Fiber from carbohydrates helps to relieve constipation. Red blood cells, nerve cells, and brain cells all use carbs for energy. Thus, eliminating carbohydrates from your diet may prove to be a fatal decision.
The majority of your daily intake of carbohydrates should come from naturally occurring sugars and complex carbohydrates (starches). This is because the processed or refined sugars lack the vitamins, minerals, and fiber found in complex carbs (starches). Example of a energy providing carbohydrates is glucose.
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a client with myasthenia gravis who has been taking pyridostigmine bromide for the treatment of the disorder comes to the emergency department complaining of severe muscle weakness, and cholinergic crisis is diagnosed. what muscles are involved first in a cholinergic crisis?
Muscles involved first in a cholinergic crisis are detrusor muscles.
What is myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis is characterized by weakness and rapid fatigue of all muscles under voluntary control. It is caused by disruption of normal communication between nerves and muscles.
There is no cure for myasthenia gravis, but treatment can relieve signs and symptoms such as: B. Weakness of arm or leg muscles, double vision, drooping eyelids, difficulty in speaking, chewing, swallowing, or breathing.
Although the disease can affect people of all ages, it is most commonly seen in women under the age of 40 and men over the age of 60.
People with myasthenia gravis are more likely to have the following medical conditions:
Hypothyroidism or overactivity. Located in the neck, the thyroid gland secretes hormones that regulate metabolism. If you have an underactive thyroid, you may have trouble coping with problems like colds and weight gain. Hyperthyroidism can make coping with fever, weight loss, and other problems difficult.Autoimmune diseases, People with myasthenia gravis are more likely to develop autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupusTo know more about myasthenia gravis visit:
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1. what is the proper method for cleansing the evacuation port of a wound drainage system? a. cleanse it with normal saline. b. wash it with soap and warm water. c. rinse it with sterile water. d. wipe it with an alcohol sponge.
The proper method for cleansing the evacuation port of a wound drainage system is stated in option A which is cleanse it with normal saline.
Cleansing the evacuation port of a wound drainage systemWound drainage system are use to help hasten healing process of a wound or injury. Wound drainage systems are fashioned to give room for enough moisture to be made available for tissues so as to promote regeneration and reduce some inflammatory condition which hasten healing.
Normal saline water is use as cleansing of the evacuation port of wound drainage system because it is not toxic, isotonic and help to hasten healing process.
Therefore, the use of normal saline water is very appropriate for the cleansing of evacuation port of wound drainage system because it is non toxic and does not affect healing tissues.
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the voice of medicine and the voice of lifeworld overlap to a large extent when the goal is preventing disease and injury rather than just treating them. true false
When the objective is preventing disease and harm rather than just treating it, it is true that the voice of medicine and the voice of the lifeworld overlap to a great extent.
The patient's contextually grounded experiences of life's occurrences and difficulties are referred to as her voice of the lifeworld. These are accounts and summaries of the world of daily living presented from the viewpoint of a "natural attitude."
Technical expertise and a focus on outcomes are highlighted by The Voice of Medicine. The doctor's employment of the Voice of Medicine during a patient-caregiver encounter typically suppresses or silences the Voice of Lifeworld, which can have detrimental effects like patient dissatisfaction or worse.
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