• Check the pulse rate
• Be sure the child finishes the full course of antibiotics to ensure a complete recovery from the infection and reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
• Medication may be ineffective if not taken as prescribed. You should check the prescription one more time.
• Like any medical treatment, antibiotics have a risk of side effects. These can vary from mild to life-threatening.
What is vomiting?
Vomiting is the body's method of removing dangerous items from the stomach, yet it can also be a reaction to something that has irritated the digestive tract. Gastroenteritis is one of the most often occurring reasons for vomiting in adults.
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due to an influenza epidemic in smithtown, the hospital is almost at full-capacity. the best information system that would be used to efficiently manage resources such as personnel, beds, appointments of surgeries and ct scans, to coordinate equipment and staff as needed would be:
The best information system that would be used to efficiently manage resources such as personnel, beds, appointments of surgeries and CT scans, to coordinate equipment and staff as needed would be Scheduling.
What is CT scan?
A CT scan is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses a combination of X-rays and computer technology to produce images of the inside of the body. It shows detailed images of any part of the body, including bones, muscles, fat, organs and blood vessels. A CT scan is more detailed than a standard X-ray.
Although rare, the contrast agent can cause medical problems or allergic reactions. Most reactions are mild and cause a rash or itching. In rare cases, an allergic reaction can be serious, even life-threatening.
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question 36 drugs intended for single use by parenteral administration are typically contained in a(n) a. foil packet. b. angiocath. c. ampule. d. vial.
Answer:
A) Ampoule
Explanation:
These medicines cannot be reused and are usually used to store and transport single doses of drugs or samples. They are typically glass, but you may also encounter plastic ampoules.
a client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine. the nurse determines that the client understands important information about this medication if the client makes what statement?
Diphenoxylate - This is " An addictive component is present in this drug.”
What is diphenoxylate?
Diphenoxylate reduces gastrointestinal motility, which lessens diarrhea. Diphenoxylate exhibits chemical similarities with a number of opioids and has the potential to become addictive if used at dosages that are higher than those advised by a doctor. If the combination is administered at larger than usual doses, atropine will cause unpleasant side effects.
Diphenoxylate, an opioid of the phenylpiperidine family with central activity, is used in combination with atropine to treat diarrhea. When used with atropine, the opioid diphenoxylate slows intestinal contractions and prevents drug misuse and overdose.
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at xyz fitness, successful candidates for personal trainers must first have a bachelor's degree in a related field and then they must pass a physical fitness test to move to the personal interview stage of the selection process. this is an example of what type of selection process?
This type of selection process is an example of a multiple hurdle model.
What is a multiple hurdle model?A multiple hurdles method is a recruitment selection structure that establishes a set of hurdles that a candidate must overcome in order to progress to the next step in the selection process. Each hurdle consists of a cutoff score. The hurdles consist of different aspects of a choice or selection test.
Educational level, cognitive ability, and other such tests will be considered before a candidate is submitted to the selection process to narrow down the candidate pool. The multiple hurdles method allows employers to narrow the candidate pool in consideration of those who are suitable for the position without affecting the effectiveness of the selection process.
The multiple hurdles model requires candidates to go through each step of the selection process. Failure to perform any step will disqualify the applicant.
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1. the post-bariatric surgery diet is low in kcalories and high in protein. what percent of kcalories come from protein in this 1-day soft foods diet menu?
d. 42% calories from protein
the most common route by which a drug is ingested into the body is oral administration, while one of the most rapid ways of getting the effects of a drug is .
The most common route by which a drug is ingested into the body is oral administration, while one of the most rapid ways of getting the effects of a drug is intravenous.
What is Intravenous?This is referred to as method in which a drug or medication is administered to a patient via the vein. It involves the use of equipment such as syringes which punctures the skin and transfers it into the bloodstream.
In the case of the oral administration, the drugs are metabolized in various parts of the body before they are released into the bloodstream which makes its effect slower.
Intravenous method of drug administration has a very rapid ways of getting the effects of a drug because it goes directly into the bloodstream and doesn't undergo extra metabolic reactions when compared to the oral route which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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an adult client with a long history of alcohol abuse has been diagnosed with wernicke disease. which is the most likely course of this client's health problem?
Answer: Chronic Alcohol Use
Explanation:
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome happens due to a lack of thiamine. This essential vitamin changes (converts) sugar into energy. When you have too little thiamine, your brain doesn't have enough energy to work properly. The most common cause of thiamine deficiency is chronic alcohol use.
Imagine that a health care employee was injured at work and reported the injury to OSHA because he or she felt that the situation was unsafe. However, upon investigating, OSHA discovered that the employee was using the equipment unsafely and had not attended the employer-provided training on how to use the machinery. What do you think the consequences would be for the health care facility in this case?
Answer:Hope this helps.
Explanation:
When you look at compliance in healthcare, the goal is to comply with industry standards and regulations to ultimately provide safe, high-quality patient care.
You might be thinking that this task falls to a compliance officer. According to SAI Global’s 2018 Healthcare Compliance Benchmark Report, 20% of healthcare companies have one full-time staff person managing compliance, while 13% rely on one part-time worker to handle compliance.
But compliance is truly everyone’s responsibility – with employees at every level thinking about it and participating in it – as it has enormous business implications. Do not make the mistake of relegating compliance to a single compliance officer or department.
While one person or department might take the lead on compliance efforts, the responsibility truly falls to all employees to perform their jobs in the spirit of doing the right thing, both legally and morally.
And it starts with organizational leaders setting the tone and encouraging transparency and ethical behavior. The ultimate goal? To develop a culture of accountability from top to bottom.
The combined effort it takes to achieve compliance is exactly what makes it so difficult. Nevertheless, compliance is vitally important for your organization to thrive, especially in the highly regulated, high-risk healthcare industry.
In fact, compliance isn’t just important, it is mandatory, covering everything from HIPAA and drug regulations to fraud protection and antitrust issues. It can be easy to get lost in the regulations and lose sight of performing medicine.
Definition of Non-compliance
Now that you know about compliance, what is non-compliance? In general, non-compliance in healthcare is when individuals do not follow the rules, regulations, and laws that relate to healthcare practices.
While this could include patients not complying with medical orders, the focus here will be on regulatory non-compliance. While non-compliance can cover both internal and external rules and regulations, most healthcare non-compliance issues deal with patient safety, the privacy of patient information, and billing practices.
jamie houser has been diagnosed with psoriasis. jamie presents today for a laser treatment for her inflammatory skin disease; total area treated is 375 sq. cm. what is the correct code for this treatment?
The correct code for the treatment which involves Jamie having laser treatment for her inflammatory skin disease and the total area treated is 375 sq. cm is 96921 and is denoted as option C.
What is Medical coding?This is referred to as the process in which healthcare diagnosis and treatment are translated into numeric and alphanumeric characters. This is done so as to eliminate ambiguity which may cause errors by the professionals during different processes.
The CPT code for the laser treatment for inflammatory skin disease such as psoriasis is 96921 and in this scenario we were told that she went through laser treatment for the same medical condition which therefore means that the code which is 96921 is the same which is why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
A) 96913
B) 96920
C) 96921
D) 96922
a person's oxygen saturation is 89% and the pulse display on the pulse oximeter is aligned with the radial pulse. how should the healthcare provider respond?
Option C is the correct answer. Healthcare providers should ask the client "Are you having any difficulty breathing?".
Whenever a person's oxygen saturation level is abnormal, there might be some difficulty in the respiratory system. Healthcare providers should first ask if the client is facing any difficulty breathing. 89% Saturation level is considered to be abnormal. Further assessments should be done before any Intervention.
The first assessment should be about the Respiratory System which should also include a subjective assessment of the client's breathing. The situation of the client's current health state will determine how you proceed with the Interventions.
Hence, Option C is the correct answer and the Breathing of the client should be checked first prior to any intervention.
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Complete Question:
4. A person’s oxygen saturation is 89% and the pulse displayed on the pulse oximeter is aligned with the radial pulse. How should the healthcare provider respond?
a. Give oxygen to the client
b. Raise up the head of the client’s bed
c. Ask the client, “are you having any difficulty breathing?” **
d. Note this finding as normal and continue with the assessment
suppose you are a health care worker who is examining a child with the following symptoms: facial and bodily malformations, short attention span, hyperactivity, and motor impairments. which drug would you suspect that the child's mother used during pregnancy?
You might guess that the mother of the child took alcohol when she was pregnant.
Is it safe to drink when pregnant?No. Despite the fact that having a glass of wine at dinner or a mug of beer with friends may seem harmless, there is no known "safe amount" of alcohol to take during pregnancy. Alcohol can have a significant negative impact on a fetus' development and is one of the primary causes of both physical and mental birth defects.
There is no level of alcohol consumption that is considered safe when trying to get pregnant or while you are already pregnant. Furthermore, drinking while expecting is never a good idea. The harmful consequences of drinking alcohol are the same for all alcoholic beverages, including all wines and beers. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) can be prevented if a newborn does not consume alcohol before birth.
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a 12-month-old boy with fever who has a suspected uti has vomited 5 times in the past 7 hours and his last wet diaper was approximately 6 hours ago. when talking with the parents about what action should be taken, which is the most correct plan?
A 12-month-old boy with a fever who has a suspected UTI has vomited 5 times in the past 7 hours, the following action should be taken such as recommend continued observation at home, recommend antimicrobial therapy, and conduct the renal ultrasound.
Having a fever implies your child features a modern infection. It's most likely caused by an infection. You will not know the cause of the fever until other indications
Having a fever implies your child features a modern infection. It's most likely caused by an infection. You will not know the cause of the fever until other indications create.
This may take 24 hours. For newborn children, more than 3 months ancient, most fevers are great for debilitated children.
The chemoreceptor trigger zone is the region most dependable for the spewing reflex. Usually a part of the medulla, which is within the lower, baser, portion of the brainstem.
The heaving center may be an expansive gather of axons and receptors that, when fortified, deliver an emetic reaction and will lead to an individual spewing.
It can take up to 2 days for the test to let us know if there's a disease. In case your infant has contamination, the specialist will likely endorse anti-microbials.
In case your child is endorsed anti-microbials, it is imperative to allow each measurement of the pharmaceutical, indeed if your child appears superior. Most children will never get a UTI.
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a client has been referred to the dermatology office for an evaluation of a suspected common malignant tumor of the skin. which is the most common malignant tumor of the skin?
The most common malignant tumor of the skin is basal cell carcinoma.
The most prevalent type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma (BCC).BCC is most common in individuals who have a light complexion. The basal cells, a type of skin cell that replaces dead skin cells with new ones, are where basal cell carcinoma develops.
Although it can take a variety of forms, basal cell carcinoma typically manifests as a slightly transparent bump on the skin. It is a kind of skin cancer that usually shows up on the face or other parts of the skin that are exposed to the sun. Basal cell carcinoma typically appears as a brown or glossy black bump with a rolled border on brown and black skin.
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cardiovascular exercise training with the objective of developing basic health-related fitness for children should take place at least three times per week. what is the minimal recommended intensity?
The minimal recommended intensity is vigorous-intensity activity on at least 3 days per week.
Even low-intensity activity can offset some of the risks of sedentary work. Get even more benefits when you're active for at least 300 minutes a week. Gradually increase the amount and intensity over time. At least 60 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity each day. Cardio Most of his 60 minutes each day should include walking running or any activity that gets his heart pumping.
You should be physically active at least 3 days a week. The role of aerobic exercise in weight loss is to burn calories. The more you do cardiovascular exercise, the more calories you burn. If you're trying to lose weight, you should aim to do at least 250 minutes of cardio per week for at least 5 days per week. They develop healthy bones muscles and joints. Develop a healthy heart and lungs. Improve coordination strength and muscle control.
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which of the following activities are considered to be part of the core competencies for public health professionals? (select all that apply.) group of answer choices obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community implementing nursing care and subsequent evaluation outcomes maintaining public health departments throughout the united states defining variables relevant to current public health problems
The two option are correct A and B. Defining variables relevant to current public health problems and Obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community.
What does it mean to be a public health professional?People who work in public health ensure the conditions necessary for people to be healthy through scientific research and health education. To stop the spread of disease, this could entail immunizing both children and adults.
What do public health professionals focus on?The study of protecting and enhancing the health of individuals and their communities is referred to as public health. In order to accomplish this effort, healthy lifestyles are promoted, disease & injury prevention research is conducted, and infectious disease diagnosis, prevention, or response are studied.
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The complete question is -
Which of the following activities are considered to be part of the core competencies for public health professionals? (Select all that apply.)
a. Defining variables relevant to current public health problems
b. Obtaining and interpreting information regarding risks and benefits to the community
c. Implementing nursing care and subsequent evaluation outcomes
d. Maintaining public health departments throughout the United States
transdermal patches are intended to release a drug over an extended period of time. particular care must be used with this type of drug administration owing to its design and thin metal backing. the modality of concern in medical imaging would be a. pet scanning. b. sonography. c. mri scanning. d. ct scanning.
A transdermal patch is a patch that sticks to your skin & contains medication.
Which transdermal patch do you mean?A transdermal patch is a patch that sticks to your skin & contains medication. Your person consumes the drug from the patch over time. If you'd rather not use pills or injections, several medications may well be taken most comfortably with a patch.
What kinds of transdermal patches are examples of?Besides hormone patched (estrogen, testosterone, and contraceptive), vitamin patches, pain patch (fentanyl and buprenorphine), & motion sickness patches are also frequently used transdermal (scopolamine).
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MRI scanning is the medical imaging modality of concern.
What you mean by transdermal patch?A transdermal patch is a patch that adheres to your skin and contains medication. Your body absorbs the medication from the patch over time. If you prefer not to take pills or injections, some drugs may be taken more comfortably with a patch.
A transdermal patch may have the following negative effects:
Having difficulty falling or staying asleepstomachache and a sore throatSkin sensitivity, itching, swelling, or redness in the patched area.An overdose can occur if you use too much fentanyl skin patch or combine it with too much another drug. If this occurs, seek immediate emergency assistance. An overdose can cause breathing problems, as well as loss of consciousness and death.
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louise is in the hospital, where she has been admitted against her will. she is being force-fed through intravenous tubes in an attempt to get nutrients into her body. louise is probably suffering from:
Louise is currently in the hospital after being forcibly taken there. Through intravenous catheters, she is being force-fed in an effort to feed her body with nutrition. It's likely that Louise has anorexia nervosa.
What is Anorexia nervosa?
The eating disorder anorexia nervosa, usually referred to simply as "anorexia," is characterized by an abnormally low body weight, a great fear of gaining weight, and an incorrect perception of weight. Anorexics typically make extreme attempts that drastically disrupt their lives in an effort to preserve their weight and looks.
Anorexia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that is primarily distinguished by a fear of putting on weight. The majority of people who have anorexia nervosa are underweight or have low weight.
Hence the correct answer is Anorexia nervosa.
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the voice of medicine and the voice of lifeworld overlap to a large extent when the goal is preventing disease and injury rather than just treating them. true false
When the objective is preventing disease and harm rather than just treating it, it is true that the voice of medicine and the voice of the lifeworld overlap to a great extent.
The patient's contextually grounded experiences of life's occurrences and difficulties are referred to as her voice of the lifeworld. These are accounts and summaries of the world of daily living presented from the viewpoint of a "natural attitude."
Technical expertise and a focus on outcomes are highlighted by The Voice of Medicine. The doctor's employment of the Voice of Medicine during a patient-caregiver encounter typically suppresses or silences the Voice of Lifeworld, which can have detrimental effects like patient dissatisfaction or worse.
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which statement accurately describes bariatric surgery options? a. contrary to popular belief, vitamin and mineral deficiencies after surgery are rare. b. surgery might be appropriate for people with a bmi > 40 or >35 with other obesity-related health problems. c. surgery will only work for people proven to be able to achieve adequate weight loss with diet and exercise. d. in most cases, >75 percent of excess weight remains lost ten years after surgery.
a. contrary to popular belief, vitamin and mineral deficiencies after surgery are rare statement accurately describes bariatric surgery options
What is weight-loss surgery?Gastric bypass, sleeve gastrectomy, gastric band, and duodenal switch are among the bariatric surgery methods. Making alterations to your digestive tract is a component of bariatric surgery, which includes gastric bypass and other weight-loss procedures. When diet and exercise have failed or when you are experiencing major health issues as a result of your weight, bariatric surgery is performed. In the first 12 to 21 months following surgery, people who have gastric bypass experience fast weight loss. There are several causes for the quick weight reduction, including: not being allowed to eat for 24 to 48 hours. alterations to portion sizes when food is permitted
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1. what is the proper method for cleansing the evacuation port of a wound drainage system? a. cleanse it with normal saline. b. wash it with soap and warm water. c. rinse it with sterile water. d. wipe it with an alcohol sponge.
The proper method for cleansing the evacuation port of a wound drainage system is stated in option A which is cleanse it with normal saline.
Cleansing the evacuation port of a wound drainage systemWound drainage system are use to help hasten healing process of a wound or injury. Wound drainage systems are fashioned to give room for enough moisture to be made available for tissues so as to promote regeneration and reduce some inflammatory condition which hasten healing.
Normal saline water is use as cleansing of the evacuation port of wound drainage system because it is not toxic, isotonic and help to hasten healing process.
Therefore, the use of normal saline water is very appropriate for the cleansing of evacuation port of wound drainage system because it is non toxic and does not affect healing tissues.
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which of the following definitions is correct? an antalgic gait is a limp, which reflects unilateral pain and compensation for that pain. a shuffling gait suggests loss of sensory input or loss of position information. a wide gait suggests hemiplegia or parkinsonism. a slow, narrow-based gait suggests spinal cord injury. a foot drop or slap suggests central ataxia.
An antalgic gait is a limp, which reflects unilateral pain and compensation for that pain.
The correct option is A.
What does unilateral pain mean?Or you might also feel constant but less intense discomfort. Trigeminal neuralgia is typically unilateral (meaning it only affects one side of your face). If it's unilateral, both parties will be impacted, albeit not immediately.
What causes unilateral neuropathy?This includes accidents, slips, or tension from repetitive motion. Other reasons include autoimmune infections and diseases, such as human immunodeficiency virus, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, herpes, syphilis, and Lyme disease (HIV). The so-called unilateral neuropathic pain is only sustained by asymmetrical nerve damage.
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The complete question is -
Which of the following definitions is correct?
A-An antalgic gait is a limp, which reflects unilateral pain and compensation for that pain.
B-A shuffling gait suggests loss of sensory input or loss of position information.
C-A wide gait suggests hemiplegia or Parkinsonism.
D-A slow, narrow-based gait suggests spinal cord injury.
E-A foot drop or slap suggests central ataxia.
a child has just been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (sle). which assessment finding would be considered the most accurate prognostic indicator of the extent/seriousness of the disease?
The below finding would be considered the most accurate prognostic indicator of the extent/seriousness of the disease SLE is Rust/blood-coloured urine.
What is disease ?A disease is a specific abnormal condition that adversely affects the structure or function of the whole organism or part of it and is not directly caused by external damage. Diseases are often illnesses with certain signs and symptoms. Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites. Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They are usually harmless or even beneficial. However, under certain conditions, some organisms can cause disease. Some infectious diseases can be transmitted from one person to another
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Tell us what you know about the nursing profession. How are you an underrepresented minority in nursing or an economically disadvantaged student?
Nurses have many duties, including caring for patients, communicating with doctors, administering medicine and checking vital signs. Making up for the biggest healthcare job in the U.S., nurses play a vital role in medical facilities and enjoy a large number of job opportunities.
Few nurses from racial/ethnic minority groups with advanced nursing degrees pursue faculty careers. According to 2021 data from AACN's annual survey, only 19.2% of full-time nursing school faculty come from minority backgrounds, and only 7.4% are male.
an understanding of foodways is essential to the study of nutrition because it provides a foundation for why people choose to eat the foods that they do. which is an example of foodways?
In the given options All examples of food ways are correct. With the potential to significantly impact both global health and economy, nutrition research holds the key to improving our understanding of the causes of obesity and its associated comorbidities. Hence to understand nutrition, it is important to understand the different food ways.
What are foodways?
The cultural, social, and economic activities pertaining to the production and use of food are known as "foodways" in the social sciences. The term "foodways" describes how food is woven into a society's history, culture, and traditions. Foodways bind people to a family, an ethnic or religious group, a place, a climate, and a time period. Every day, new foodways are developing or being brought back. The rediscovery of foodways has led to a rise in interest in canning and preserving.
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a 5-year-old child has been admitted to the hospital and is going to have an iv started in the procedure room. which instructions will be most helpful for the child and the parent?
Have the parent sing softly to the child during the procedure will be most helpful for the child and the parent.
Making musical noises with the voice is the act of singing. In jazz and/or popular music, a performer who sings is referred to as a singer or vocalist. Music that can be sung with or without instrumental accompaniment, such as arias, recitatives, songs, etc., is performed by singers. A choir or other musical group will frequently sing together. The accompaniment for singers can range from a single instrument (as in art songs or some jazz styles) to a symphony orchestra or big band, or they can perform alone. Various singing genres include classical music, such as opera and Chinese opera, as well as world music, jazz, blues, ghazal, Indian, and Japanese music, as well as popular music genres like pop and rock.
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the client reports to the clinic as ordered by the primary care provider for counseling on weight loss to improve overall health. the client received printed information in the mail to review before the session, and reports having read through it before the appointment. which client statement alerts the nurse to a need for clarification and further education?
Begin the weight-loss conversation in a respectful and nonjudgmental manner. Patients may be more open if they believe they are respected. Begin the weight-loss conversation in a respectful and nonjudgmental manner. Mention the health risks associated with overweight and obesity before asking patients if they want to talk about their weight.
Which is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the nursing process?The assessment phase of the nursing process entails gathering information about the patient that will be used to guide care planning, recovery goals, and patient progress evaluation. Nurses can gather information about patients by pursuing the following goals.The evaluation focuses on the efficacy of the nursing interventions by reviewing the expected outcomes to see if they were met within the time frames specified.To assess the efficacy of a nursing intervention, the nurse must compare the actual patient outcome to the expected patient outcome. The expected outcomes are the measurable data that show goal achievement, whereas the actual outcomes are what actually occurred.To learn more about : Nursing intervention
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snoring, snorting, gasping, or pauses in inhaling and exhaling air along with daytime sleepiness and fatigue; lack of sufficient ventilation of the lungs during sleep are the predominant symptoms of
Snoring, snorting, gasping, or pauses in inhaling and fatigue lack of sufficient ventilation of the lungs during sleep are the predominant symptoms of breathing-related sleep disorders.
The raspy or loud sound that results when air passes through relaxed throat tissues and causes the tissues to vibrate with each breath is known as snoring. Most individuals snore occasionally, but for some, it can be a persistent issue. Obstructive sleep apnea is frequently linked to snoring as a sleep problem (OSA). having dominance over others, power, or influence; Not all snorers have OSA; preeminent. conspicuous; preponderant: a characteristic that predominant; a painting's predominant color. Seeing a doctor for additional OSA examination may be advised if any of the following symptoms are present in addition to snoring:
observed breathing pauses during sleeping
extreme drowsiness during the day
Having trouble focusing
daytime headaches
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select the true statement from the choices below. a. drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription. b. prescription drugs can only be dispensed by pharmacists. c. vitamins, supplements, and herbal remedies are classified as prescription drugs and dietary supplements. d. prescription drugs are also known as over-the-counter drugs.
Rx drugs are only available with a prescription from a doctor or another licensed medical professional, such as a nurse practitioner or physician assistant.
" prescription drugs can only be dispensed by pharmacists. " is True statement.
What are the prescription and nonprescription drugs?Prescription drugs are those that are safe and effective when used under the supervision of a doctor, whereas nonprescription or OTC drugs are those that the FDA has determined are safe and effective for use without a doctor's prescription.Over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription (Rx) drugs are examples of legal drugs. Legal drugs include alcohol, nicotine, and caffeine.Rx drugs are only available with a prescription from a doctor or another licensed medical professional, such as a nurse practitioner or physician assistant. These medications are typically stronger than over-the-counter medications and can only be used by the intended person to treat a specific medical condition.To learn more about : Prescription drugs
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a. drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription.
What is the difference between prescription drugs and OTC drugs?
A drug is a substance that is used to treat, diagnose, mitigate, or prevent disease.
Prescription medications are issued by a doctor, obtained from a pharmacy, and intended for use only by the patient for whom they are issued. The FDA regulates this via the New Drug Application (NDA) process.
Nonprescription drugs are known as Over-the-counter drugs(OTC). OTC drugs are those that can be purchased without a prescription from a doctor and are found in retail establishments. Through OTC Drug monographs, the FDA regulates this. When used according to the instructions on the label and those given by your healthcare provider, they are safe and effective.
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a client suffered a laceration in his workshop and lost a significant amount of blood. the clots that formed have begun to retract. the process of clot dissolution has begun, which starts with:
A client suffered a laceration in his workshop and lost a significant amount of blood, the clots that formed have begun to retract. the process of clot dissolution has begun, which starts with plasminogen activation.
What is the wound healing procedure depicted in this situation?Primary intention healing is the wound-healing process outlined in this case.Secondary intention healingTertiary intention healing.Approximation healing.What happens when there are no more available clotting components?
"There is so much clotting that there are no accessible clotting components remaining, and bleeding ensues." Nursing students are studying the regular stages of hemostasis, particularly the first stage, which involves vasoconstriction of the blood artery.
What effect do antihypertensives have on skin integrity and wound healing?Skin integrity and wound healing are reduced in blood pressure medication patients because of antihypertensives:
Can be harmful to cells. Increase the risk of ischemia.Postpone wound healing. Increase the risk of hematoma formation.Learn more about hemostasis here:-
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in icd-10, which has combination codes that include the type of diabetes, what code is used if the type of diabetes is not documented in the medical record and the practitioner cannot be questioned?
The type of diabetes is not documented in the medical record and the practitioner cannot be questioned as an External cause of morbidity.
Types of diabetes mellitus affected body systems, and complications affect those body systems. According to the American Hospital Association Coding Clinic, any combination of diabetes codes can be assigned together as long as one diabetes condition is not unique to another. The order of the secondary diabetes codes in relation to the diabetic cause codes follows the instructions in the tabular list for categories E08 and E09.
Insulin use is involved in the diagnosis of type I diabetes itself. In this case, this patient is assumed to be using insulin, so there is no need to report her Z-code for long-term insulin use. Certain conditions have both an underlying etiology and symptoms of multiple body systems due to the underlying etiology. A fourth sign identifies the presence of symptoms or complications. The fifth and sixth signs identify specific types of symptoms.
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