Synonymous codons are different codons that encode the same amino acid.It has been demonstrated for all creatures that the distribution of these codons in a genome is not random, despite the fact that synonymous codons encode the same amino acid.
What does it mean for two codons to be synonymous?
The ratio of the observed codon frequency to the anticipated frequency, assuming that all synonymous codons for the same amino acid are used equally, is known as relative synonymous codon usage, or RSCU. Previously, it was believed that synonymous variants, which are codon substitutions that do not modify the encoded amino acid, had no impact on the characteristics of the protein that was made. The mRNA is then dragged into the ribosome, where it is translated into an amino acid sequence utilizing the tRNAs as adaptors to add each amino acid in the proper order to the end of the expanding polypeptide chain when its codons come into contact with the ribosome's active site. The entire collection of codons is referred to as the genetic code. Each codon stands for a single amino acid (or stop signal).There are 64 different three-letter nucleotide sequences that can be created from the four nucleotides, or permutations, that make up the genetic code. Each codon gives the cell instructions on whether to begin building a protein chain, add a particular amino acid to the expanding protein chain, or stop building a protein chain altogether.For instance, the messenger RNA codon GCA indicates that alanine will be added to the protein chain. Synonyms are codons that both encode the same amino acid.The redundancy or degeneracy of the genetic codon is the term used to describe this particular characteristic of genetic code.Only twenty amino acids can be linked to the 64 potential codons in an organism. Protein sequences are altered by nonsynonymous mutations, which are commonly exposed to natural selection.The same is true for nonsense mutations that cause CDSs to contain premature stop codons (coding sequences).However, synonymous mutations are intuitively believed to be neutral in terms of evolution and functional silenceSynonymous mutations occur when the DNA sequence that codes for the amino acids in a protein sequence is altered without altering the amino acid that is encoded.These modifications typically take place in the third position of a codon because of the genetic code's redundancy (many codons represent the same amino acid).To learn more about amino acid refer
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the free energy released by atp hydrolysis can be used to drive endergonic reactions, such as the conversion of glutamic acid to glutamine. as you saw in the video, the synthesis of glutamine from glutamic acid is a two-step process: atp phosphorylates glutamic acid. ammonia displaces the phosphate group, forming glutamine. how does the phosphorylation of glutamic acid (glu) provide energy for the rest of the reaction to occur?
When a phosphate is added to glutamate, a phosphorylated intermediate with higher free energy is created. Thus, the phosphate can be replaced by ammonia in an exergonic process.
What are exergonic reactions?A reaction is considered exergonic if free energy is released during the reaction (for example, during cellular respiration). The line depicts the reaction's progression. The process is slowed down by activation energy (1).
What kinds of reactions are exergonic examples?Exergonic reactions happen on their own (no outside energy is required to start them). Exothermic reactions, such as the combining of sodium and chlorine to create table salt, combustion, and chemiluminescence are examples of exergonic reactions (light is the energy that is released).
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Zara is using a microscope to look at some animal cells on a slide. She knows that there are animals cells on the slide but when she looks through the microscope, she cannot see any cells. List reasons
Answer:
1. The specimen perhaps hasn't been stained so no structures can be seen.
2. If a light microscope, perhaps the light isn't turned on.
3. The specimen may not bein focus
4. Microscope not turned on
5. Not smeared enough to see the specimen
6. Specimen is too thick - diffraction barrier of light microscopes in which light can't focus the specimen - Low resolving power of light microscope.
you do a mutant hunt to screen for histidine mutants in a fungus population and isolate 15 mutants. you find that the histidine phenotype is recessive in mutants 1-14, but dominant in mutant 15. you then organize the mutants based on complementation groups (groups that will complement each other) a) describe how you would determine the complementation groups for each mutant. b) explain what it means if two mutants are in the same complementation group as opposed to in different groups
A complementation group is made up of mutants and meaning of same complementation group can be described by an experiment of biosynthetic pathway of histidine.
The complementation test is used to determine whether the mutations are in different genes or the same gene.
a) The biosynthetic pathway of histidine is the subject of our experiment.
Histidine biosynthesis is a series of steps mediated by various enzymes whose codes are encoded by various genes. The next step in the pathway is determined by the product of one gene.
Therefore, mutants with a gene X mutation will be unable to synthesize histidine. Histidine is necessary for the growth of those mutants.
+ refers to prototrophs that can grow in minimal media; - refers to auxotroph that need histidine to grow (MM). When mutant A1 mated with itself, the resulting diploid remains auxotrophic due to its homozygous status for the defective allele.
The prototrophy was restored when mutant A1 and mutant A2 were mated, complementing each other.
The same holds true for the other mutants.
This allows us to determine which his-phenotype is recessive in mutants 1 through 14.
b) If a mutant has a mutation in gene X that codes for an enzyme A and another mutant has a mutation in gene Y that codes for an enzyme B. Since both genes are necessary for the histidine biosynthesis pathway, neither mutant can make histidine on its own. However, when mutations are combined, a mutant with a normal copy of gene X on one chromosome will produce ENZYME A, while a mutant with a mutant copy of ENZYME 2 They are grouped together as the same complementation.
c) Mutants that do not complement one another will also be placed in the same group (group 1): A1, A3, A5 group 2, A2, A4, A6 group 3, A7, A8 group 4, A9, and A10.
This makes a total of four complementation groups.
You do a second mutant hunt to screen for histidine mutants and isolate 15 mutants. You find that the his- phenotype is recessive in mutants 1-14, but dominant in mutant 15. You then organize the mutants based on complementation groups
a) Describe the experiment that you performed and the results that you obtained which allowed you to determine that the his-phenotype is recessive in mutants 1-14, but dominant in mutant 15
b) Describe how you would determine complementation groups for each of your mutants and explain what it means if two mutant are in the same complementation group as opposed to in different complementation groups
c) The following is the result of a complementation assay. Here (-) represent no growth on minimal media and (+) represent growth on minimal media. Based on the information provided, arrange the mutants into complementation groups. A1. A2 A3 A4 A5 A7 A8 A9 A10.
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The images show two different types of Galapagos tortoises that scientists believe descended from the same species. The first type (left) are found on islands that have high vegetation and few grasses. The second type (right) are found on an island that has large amounts of grasses and low-lying shrubs. What explains the type of turtle found on the islands with high vegetation?
The correct explanation for the type of turtle found on Galapagos islands having high vegetation is that (C) the turtles having genes encoding for long necks were able to survive better till they attained reproductive age.
The two types of turtle which can be found on Galapagos islands is largely determined by their feeding habits. The distinct shape of necks which can be observed in these two types of turtle mainly depends upon the type of adaptation that each species has acquired in response to its surrounding environment.
The turtles found on the islands with high vegetation possessed longer necks as compared to the other type. Since the second type of turtle were found in a region with low-lying vegetation, the need to raise the head in order to feed was eliminated in these type of turtle.
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Why is there a need to produce okazaki fragments on the lagging strand, but not on the leading strand of dna?.
There is a need to produce Okazaki fragments on the lagging stand, but not the leading strand of the DNA because the two parental strands of DNA are antiparallel and DNA polymerase makes DNA in the 5' to 3' direction only.
The leading strand of the DNA can be described as a strand that is in the 5' to 3' direction. As the DNA polymerase that is required for replication works in this direction hence there is no need of Okazaki fragments to be formed for the leading strand.
The lagging strand, on the other hand, is in the 3' to 5' direction which is the opposite of the working of DNA polymerase. Hence, for the lagging strand, Okazaki fragments are formed which are then joined by the DNA ligase to make the new strand from the lagging strand.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
Why is there a need to produce Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand, but not on the leading strand of DNA?
-The leading strand opens first, and so Okazaki fragments are not needed. The lagging strand unwinds second resulting in the need to produce Okazaki fragments.
-The two parental strands of DNA are antiparallel and DNA polymerase makes DNA in the 5′ to 3′ direction only.
-It is substantially more efficient to make several shorter strands rather than one longer strand of DNA.
-By having one leading strand and one lagging strand the cell can limit the amount of DNA polymerase used for chromosomal replication.
-There is not enough cellular DNA ligase for bonding Okazaki fragments together if they were produced from both parental strands.
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in the light dependent reactions, when light strikes the pigments and excided electrons are passed to p700 or p680 chlorophyll molecules what is the immediate result? excited electrons are passed to electron acceptors electrons are fused to form atp glucose is produced carbon fixation occurs
In light-dependent reactions, when light strikes the pigments and excited electrons are passed to p700 or p680 chlorophyll molecules, chlorophyll absorbs energy from sunlight and then converts it into chemical energy with the use of water.
Within the light-dependent responses, which take put in the thylakoid film, chlorophyll absorbs energy from daylight and after that changes over it into chemical vitality with the utilization of water.
The light-dependent responses discharge oxygen as a byproduct as water is broken and separated.
Each photosystem is adjusted by the light-harvesting complex, which passes vitality from daylight to the response center. It comprises numerous radio wire proteins that contain a blend of 300–400 chlorophyll a and b particles as well as other colors like carotenoids.
The photon causes an electron within the chlorophyll to end up “excited.” The vitality given to the electron permits it to break free from a molecule of the chlorophyll atom.
Chlorophyll is in this manner said to “donate” an electron. The retention of a single photon or particular amount or “packet” of light by any of the chlorophylls pushes that particle into an energized state.
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pLS help me it's due tomorrow!
Hemostasis is your body’s normal reaction to an injury that causes bleeding.
What is hemostasis?Your body's natural response to an injury that results in bleeding is hemostasis. This response stops the bleeding, allowing your body to begin healing the wound. You must have this talent to survive, especially if you have severe wounds. However, the mechanisms that regulate hemostasis can occasionally break down, leading to potentially serious or even dangerous issues with bleeding or clotting.Primary hemostasis and secondary hemostasis are the two components of hemostasis. Unstable hemostatic platelet plug development results from primary hemostasis employing vascular endothelial cells and platelets. In secondary hemostasis, activation of the coagulation cascade leads to the creation of a stable fibrin clot. Hemostasis generally results in the injury site's bleeding ceasing. To prevent blood clots from forming at the site of an injury, natural anticoagulants are required. After the healing process, the blood clot must be removed in order to restore blood flow. One of the key elements needed to remove a clot is the fibrinolysis system. To guarantee an efficient response to vascular injury that is restricted to the injured spot, procoagulant and anticoagulant components interacted intricately.Therefore, your body's natural response to an injury that results in bleeding is hemostasis.
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Explain the function of organelles present in a prokaryotic cell.
Explanation:
i think you will satisfy with it
brachydactyly is a shortening of fingers and toes due to unusually short bones. there are many different types of brachydactyly and one type (type d) is due to an autosomal dominant allele, but the homozygous dominant genotype results in embryonic lethality. what is the percent chance ( %) that two individuals with type d brachydactyly will have a child who does not have brachydactyly? enter your answer as a whole number %.
There will be 1/3% chance that two individuals with type d brachydactyly will have a child who does not have brachydactyly
Brachydactyly type D is a clinically recognized disorder marked by a thumb that is relatively small and spherical with an accompanying broader nail bed. It is also known as short thumb or stub thumb and incorrectly referred to as clubbed thumb.
Because it is a dominant genetic trait, a child can inherit the disorder from either parent. If you have brachydactyly, there is a good chance that your family members do too. Many brachydactyly cases take place in the absence of any additional medical issues.
Therefore, there will be 1/3% chance that two individuals with type d brachydactyly will have a child who does not have brachydactyly.
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which gas makes up the majority of air pollutants?A. carbon monoxide B. sodium hydroxide C. nitrous oxideD. sulfuric acid
The answer is A. carbon monoxide, and, as you say, that pollutant is mainly caused by the burn of fossil fuels providing from the energy transformation industries, like petrol we use in cars for our transportation, for example.
Answer: carbon monoxide
Explanation: trust bro, trust.
How did DDT nearly drive the peregrine Falcon to extinction in the 1950s and 60’s?
It was frequently employed in the 1950s and 1960s to get rid of insects that ate crops.
Briefing:However, DDT was essentially outlawed in the United States in 1972 after researchers found that birds like the peregrine falcon and bald eagle were eating the pesticide and were unable to hatch offspring due to eggshell weakening.
Is peregrine falcon the fastest animal?The peregrine falcon, the fastest bird and fastest animal in the world, is best renowned for its diving speed when flying, which may reach more than 300 km/h (186 mph). The underparts are white to yellowish white, with black bands on the bluish gray upper parts of the bird.
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if a bacterial cell is competent, it means that a. it is ready to undergo transduction b. the bacterium is ready to conjugate c. the bacterium is able to replicate its dna and undergo cell fission. d. the bacterium can import free dna fragments from the environment. e. two of the above are correct
Option d.) Bacteria can take up free fragments of DNA from the environment. This is the correct answer.
Competent cells are bacterial cells that take up extrachromosomal DNA or plasmids from the environment. Competent cell generation can be done in two ways- natural competence and artificial competence. Natural competence is the genetic ability of bacteria to take up environmental DNA under natural or in vitro conditions. Bacteria can also be artificially rendered capable of being temporarily permeabilized by DNA through chemical treatment and heat shock. Natural Competence dates back to 1928, when Frederick Griffith discovered that thermal cells prepared from pathogenic bacteria could transform non-pathogenic cells into pathogenic cells.
However, natural capacity and transformation are valid for linear molecules such as chromosomal DNA, but not for circular plasmid molecules.
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Which of these is a statement of opinion?
(A.) While exact figures are unknown, experts estimate that approximately 200 deaths have occurred on Mount Everest since 1920s.
(B.) Tens of thousands of amateur climbers flock to Mount Everest each year with the ambition to climb to the summit.
(C.)Efforts to cleanse Mount Everest of a century's worth of human waste will only be effective if new methods of waste disposal are put into place.
(D.)The Everest Cleaning Campaign is an organization that includes representatives from both the Nepalese government and the Everest Summiteers Association.
Answer: B
Explanation:
It states amateur climbers ( srry if I got it wrong )
What makes plants wilt?
A. A lack of motility that would usually come from the nucleus
B. A lack of stablity that would usually come from the ribosomes
C. A lack of turgor pressure that would usually come from water stored in the central vacuole
*Brainliest* Plsss the correct answer :) TY
Answer:
I think the answer is C
Explanation:
Sorry if I'm wrong.
Answer: B
Explanation: Dehydration
Jackrabbits’ large ears are an adaptation for _______. a. hunting prey b. enhanced hearing c. storing water d. dissipating heat please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Jackrabbits' large ears are an adaptation for dissipating heat.
Jackrabbits inhabit desert environments where the days are quite warm. Their ears are a coping mechanism for the heat in the desert. Depending on the temperature, a network of blood arteries in the big, thin ears regulates blood flow. They have quite large ears. A jackrabbit's ears are undoubtedly good listeners, but they also serve as radiators.
They enhance blood flow via the ears to remove heat after a race and on warm days. They reduce blood flow through the ears at night to keep you warm and also increase blood flow via the ears to eliminate heat after a race. They keep the body warm on chilly nights by reducing blood flow through the ears.
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a mutant e. coli cell expresses z, y, and a genes at the same levels in the presence and absence of lactose. these levels correspond to those observed in wild-type e. coli cells in the presence of lactose. which region of the dna could contain the mutation?
The i gene region of the dna could contain the mutation. The i gene codes for the repressor of the lac operon.
The repressor of the lac operon is encoded by the I gene. The hydrolysis of the lactose disaccharide into its monomeric components, galactose and glucose, is predominantly carried out by the enzyme -galactosidase, which is encoded by the Z gene.
Most repressor binding site mutation result in decreased repressor affinity and thus reduced binding. Thus, these changes enable constitutive expression, which allows the lac operon to continue to be transcribed (and subsequently expressed) even in the absence of an inducer.
Therefore, the i gene region of the dna could contain the mutation. The i gene codes for the repressor of the lac operon.
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Labeling the human Skeleton system and labeling nervous system
Completed! Finnnnnnnnn
an individual who is heterozygous for an autosomal dominant condition has a child with an individual who does not have the autosomal dominant condition. what is the percent chance that their child will have the disease? (enter a whole number, not a decimal or fraction.)
The percentage of their child having the disease will be 50%.
An autosomal dominant condition means that the disease will still occur in the individual if he is heterozygous for the trait. The punnet square between a heterozygous autosomal dominant parent and autosomal recessive parent will be made to check for the chances in their offspring to carry that condition:
a a
A Aa Aa
a aa aa
The alleles for the heterozygous autosomal dominant parent are Aa and those for the autosomal recessive parent of the condition are aa.
The results show that there are 50% chance that the children will be heterozygous autosomal dominant for the trait.
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In glycolysis, a glucose molecule is split into two molecules of ______, and energy is harvested as atp and nadh.
In glycolysis, a glucose molecule is split into two molecules of pyruvate and energy is harvested as ATP and NADH.
The process of glycolysis is the first stage of cellular respiration. Cellular respiration is the process through which glucose and oxygen react to produce energy in the form of ATP as well as NADH for the cells to function.
During the process of glycolysis, the glucose molecule is broken down. Energy is released by this breaking down of glucose. The glucose breaks into two pyruvate molecules.
The process of glycolysis occurs in the cytosol of a cell and it is a complex process with a series of steps.
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which medical imaging technique do you find most interesting? why?
Answer:
Patrick De Potter, in Clinical Ophthalmic Oncology, 2007
Content
Information on the content of the lesion (cystic or solid; homogeneous or heterogeneous) can be obtained by both CT and MR imaging techniques. Both techniques also detect the presence of fluid–fluid or fluid–air levels. When lesion density is higher than that of the vitreous, CT images identify the lesion as solid. As wide range of tissue densities on CT scans or signal intensities on MR images relate to the internal architecture and the presence of proteinaceous or blood products, it is not always possible to differentiate a solid from a cystic orbital lesion. MRI images identify tissue compounds such as melanin, methemoglobin, deoxyhemoglobin, ferritin, and proteinaceous material. Punctate or conglomerate increased densities on CT scans or foci of signal void on MRI may be seen in trauma, vascular tumors, optic nerve sheath tumors (meningioma), epithelial lacrimal gland tumors, and malignant osseous tumors (osteosarcoma). In general, MR images provide more information about the content of the lesion and than do CT images. However, CT is best suited for the detection of calcification.
A bacterium converts light energy into chemical energy.
A. cellular respiration
B. glycolysis
C. photosynthesis
According to the research, the correct answer is C. A bacterium converts light energy into chemical energy represents the photosynthesis process.
What is photosynthesis?It is the process by which light energy is used for the synthesis of carbohydrates from CO2 and a reducing molecule.
In this sense, in nature there is a great diversity of photosynthetic bacterium, which obtain their energy from light to grow through the manufacture of sugars through chemical reactions.
Therefore, we can conclude that some bacteria are photosynthetic microorganisms capable of converts light energy to form sugars for energy.
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If an oak tree has 6 chromosomes in its reproductive cells, then it means that it has 12 chromosomes in its ________cells.
If an oak tree has 6 chromosomes in its reproductive cells, then it means that it has 12 chromosomes in its somatic cells. This is like this because reproductive cells are generated by meiosis, which is a reductional cell division, producing four cells with half of the genetic material of the original cell and different from each other.
In eukaryotes, the components of citric acid cycling and the electron transport chain are located in the ____.
In eukaryotes, the components of citric acid cycling and the electron transport chain are located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain are the three stages of cellular respiration through which a cell produces ATP.
In the process of cellular respiration, glucose that is derived from food and oxygen is used to produce carbon dioxide and water along with the release of energy in the form of ATP.
The process of glycolysis for a cell happens in the cytoplasm of a cell. The process of citric acid cycle as well as the electron transport chain occurs in the mitochondria. Hence, the components for both these cycles will be present in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
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The diagram below shows many of the processes involved in the carbon cycle. Which of the processes shown releases carbon into the atmosphere?
The process which release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere are animal respiration, combustion of fossil fuels, volcanic activity, plant respiration. natural combustion.
What is volcanic activity?Gas emissions, non-explosive lava emissions, and extremely intense explosive bursts that may persist for several hours are all examples of volcanic activity. Volcano shapes and sizes are influenced by the types of eruptions in terms of relative quantities, types, and lava flow patterns.
An eruption of lava may include
an eruptive pulse, which is essentially an explosion with an eruption plume as well as lave surges without an explosion. From a few seconds to minutes, a pulse can occur.
a prolonged eruptive phase made composed of multiple eruptive pulses that may alternate between explosions and lava surges and continue anywhere from a few hours to days;
a single eruption or eruptive occurrence that lasts several days, months, or years and is made up of different phases (Fisher and Schmincke, 1984). For nine years, Paricutin, Mexico, was erupting. Over 2000 years have passed since the last eruption of Stromboli, Italy.
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Analyze the graph showing the rate of photosynthesis activity as a function of carbon dioxide level. Select as many of the choices below
that accurately describe the shape of the graph as it relates to photosynthesis.
Rate of photosynthesis
Carbon dioxide
concentration
Carbon dioxide is not needed for the Calvin cycle, so the graph levels off after a certain point
The rate of photosynthesis increases as carbon dioxide levels increase.
In the photosynthesis graph, the rate of photosynthesis increases as carbon dioxide levels rise.
What is photosynthesis ?Photosynthesis is a process that plants and other organisms use to convert light energy into chemical energy that can then be released to fuel the organism's activities via cellular respiration. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into oxygen and sugar energy. Photosynthesis is the conversion of light energy by phototrophs into chemical energy, which is then used to power cellular activities. Sugars, which are formed from water and carbon dioxide, are used to store chemical energy. Photosynthesis occurs within the chloroplasts found in the mesophyll of the leaves.
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When considering different hypotheses, usually the
_______ one which can account for the
________ is the correct one.
Answer:
simplest, information
apply what you know about cooling rates to explain differences in crystal sizes
The rate of cooling is inversely proportional to the crystal size. The faster the cooling rate, the smaller is the crystal size and the slower the cooling rate, the larger is the crystal.
Rate of cooling can be defined as the elimination or removal of the high temperature from any object. This removal and be slow and gradual, therefore slow rate of cooling; or it cab quick and instant, therefore, fast rate of cooling.
Crystals are the solid components whose molecules are arranges in a regular fashion, giving it an ideal 3 dimensional pattern. They are symmetrical in nature. The examples of crystals are sugars, salt, etc.
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What is the name of the enzyme that some viruses use to turn their RNA into DNA?
Answer:
The answer is C, Reverse transcriptase
Explanation:
It is an enzyme encoded from the genetic material of retroviruses that catalyzes the transcription of retrovirus RNA (ribonucleic acid) into DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid).
The name of the enzyme that viruses use to turn their RNA into DNA is c) Reverse Transcriptase
The DNA polymerase enzyme reverse transcriptase (RT), also referred to as RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, converts single-stranded RNA into DNA. Once the RNA has been reverse-transcribed in the first step into a single-strand DNA, this enzyme can create a double helix DNA.
Reverse transcriptases are utilized by eukaryotic cells to lengthen the telomeres at the ends of their linear chromosomes, by retrotransposon mobile genetic elements to multiply inside the host genome, and by viruses like HIV, Corona Virus, and hepatitis B to duplicate their genomes.
So, viruses use Reverse Transcriptase to turn their RNA into DNA.
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I have to say and answer this in a voice message HELP
Answer:
Aerobic Respiration — Takes place in the presence of oxygen. Anaerobic Respiration –Takes place in the absence of oxygen.
you would like to produce a strain of wheat that has alleles for high gluten content by artificially selecting for high gluten in an existing population. from which population should you sample to maximize the likelihood that your new strain has alleles for high gluten?
(C) "Population that has variable gluten levels (high and low) regardless of soil quality" is where you should sample to maximize the likelihood that your new strain has alleles for high gluten.
The degree to which genetic variations among persons may adequately explain the variations in their attributes is known as heritability. Characteristics like height, eye color, and IQ are examples of traits, as are illnesses like schizophrenia and autism spectrum disorder.
Heritability is to blame for it. Heritability is a measurement of the extent to which genetic variations contribute to the phenotypic variance of a characteristic in the progeny:
It is measured from 0 to 1
H2 = Vg/Vp
Vg = Genetic variation
Vp = Vg + Ve
Ve = Environmental variation
So if the environmental variation is low, Heritability will be high.
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Question correction:
You would like to produce a strain of wheat that has alleles for high gluten content by artificially selecting for high gluten in an existing population. From which population should you sample to maximize the likelihood that your new strain has alleles for high gluten?
A. Population with high gluten when grown with fertilizer, but low gluten when grown in normal soil.
B. Population that always has average gluten levels regardless of soil quality
C. Population that has variable gluten levels (high and low) regardless of soil quality
D. Population with low gluten levels regardless of soil quality.
